Zoology - The Basics upto Tautonymy

1. The branch of genetics that deals with the practice of phenotypic improvement of humans after birth is
1. Euphenics
2. eugenics
3. biotechnology
4. bioinformatics
2. If a genus or species is given two different names by different authors accidentally, only the earlier one is the
1. junior synonym
2. junior homonym
3. senior homonym
4. valid name
3. Unicellular eukaryotes are included in the kingdom
1. Protista
2. Mycota
3. Metazoa
4. Metazoa
4. Set of rules followed for naming animals is known as
1. ICZ
2. IUCN
3. IBW
4. ICZN
5. Which of the following scientific names is correctly written?
1. Felis leo (Linnaeus, 1758)
2. Felis Leo Linnaeus, 1758
3. Panthera leo Linnaeus, 1758
4. Felis leo L., 1758
6. Application of mathematics to biology is termed
1. biometry
2. anthropology
3. eugenics
4. biotechnology
7. Branch of genetics that deals with the application of knowledge in genetics to human welfare is
1. eugenics
2. euphenics
3. euthenics
4. disgenics
8. The shape and arrangement of cells in a tissue is related to the basic priciples of
1. Biology
2. Chemistry
3. Physics
4. Mathematics
9. Find the wrong match
1. Buffon – Natural history
2. Cuvier – Morphology
3. Claude Bernard - Homeostasis
4. Richard Owen – Analogy
10. Match the following and choose the correct combination.
Term                                  Coined by
A. Organic Evolution          1. Gregor Mendel
B. Taxonomy                     2. A.P. de Candolle
C. Genetics                        3. Haeckel
D. Ecology                         4. Bateson
                                          5. Herbert Spencer
1. A-5; B-2; C-4; D-3
2. A-5; B-2; C-1; D-3
3. A-5; B-4; C-2; D-3
4. A-3; B-2; C-4; D-5
11. In five kingdom classification, prokaryotes are included in
1. Protista
2. Monera
3. Animalia
4. Plantae
12. Study of multicellular producers is
1. botany
2. zoology
3. mycology
4. bacteriology
13. Georges Cuvier proposed the genus Echidna in 1797 for the spiny anteater. However, Johann Reinhold Forster had published the name Echidna in 1777 for a genus of moray eels (fish). Johann Karl Wilhelm Illiger published the valid name Tachyglossus for the spiny ant eater in 1811. The name published by Cuvier is considered as
1. junior synonym
2. senior synonym
3. junior homonym
4. senior homonym
14. Consider the following statements:
I. Bioenergetics is the branch of biochemistry.
II. Genetic engineering is a part of biotechnology.
III. Systematics is a key part of taxonomy.
Which of the above are true?
1. Only I and II
2. Only II and III
3. Only I and III
4. All are true
15. The study of continuous genetic adaptations of organisms to the environment is
1. Genetics
2. Ecology
3. Evolution
4. Ethology
16. Match the following and choose the correct combination.
     Branch of Biology            Deals With the Study of
A. Palaeobotany                    1. Fossilized remains of plants
B. Ethology                            2. Tissues
C. Microanatomy                   3. Fossilized remains of animals
D. Exobiology                        4. Animal behaviour
                                             5. Extra-terrestrial life
1. A-3; B-4; C-2; D-5
2. A-1; B-4; C-2; D-5
3. A-1; B-5; C-2; D-4
4. A-1; B-5; C-2; D-4
17. Match the following and choose the correct combination.
       Scientist                         Contribution
A. Georges Cuvier                1. Natural Selection
B. Claude Bernard                2. Homeostasis
C. Richard Owen                  3. Comparative Anatomy
D. Buffon                              4. Natural History
                                             5. Homology
1. A-3; B-2; C-5; D-1
2. A-3; B-2; C-4; D-5
3. A-3; B-2; C-5; D-4
4. A-2; B-3; C-5; D-4
18. Consider the following statements:
I. Eugenics is the branch of genetics that deals with the practice of phenotypic improvement of humans after birth.
II. Bioenergetics is the branch of biophysics concerned with study of the transformation and use of energy by living cells of organisms.
III. Biotechnology is the branch of biology that deals with the use of biological agents for beneficial purposes.
IV. Genetic Engineering is a part of biotechnology that involves the production and use of recombinant DNA.
Which of the above statements are true?
1. III and IV only
2. I, III and IV only
3. II, III and IV only
4. All are true
19. Match the following:

     Set-I                         Set- II
A. Richard Owen          1. Natural history
B. Claude Bernard        2. Natural selection
C. Louis-de Buffon       3. Homeostasis
D. Georges Cuvier        4. Comparative anatomy
                                     5. Homology
The correct match is
1. A - 5 B - 3 C - 2 D – 4
2. A - 5 B - 4 C - 1 D – 3
3. A - 1 B - 3 C - 5 D – 4
4. A - 5 B - 3 C - 1 D – 4
20. Carolus Linnaeus described binomial nomenclature in the
1. 8th edition of Systema Naturae
2. 10th edition of Origin of Species
3. 1st edition of Species Plantarum
4. 10th edition of Systema Naturae
21. If a genus or species is given two different names by different authors accidentally, only the earlier one is called
1. junior synonym, and is the valid name
2. junior homonym, and is the valid name
3. senior synonym, and is the invalid name
4. senior synonym, and is the valid name
22. This system of nomenclature is used to name subspecies
1. binominal nomenclature
2. trinominal nomenclature
3. binomial nomenclature
4. tautonymy
23. Tautonymy is the practice of naming animals in which
1. generic name and specific name are the same
2. specific name and the subspecific name are the same
3. generic name and specific name are different
4. genetic name is an adjective and specific name is a noun
24. Genetic engineering is a part of
1. Genetics
2. Biotechnology
3. Ethology
4. Biochemistry
25. This is needed to understand the formation of animal fossils
1. Palaeobotany
2. Palaeozoology
3. Palaeontology
4. Geology
26. Microanatomy is also known as
1. Microbiology
2. Anatomy
3. Histology
4. Mycology
27. The study of cell as a structural and functional unit of living organisms is called
1. Cytology
2. Space Biology
3. Histology
4. Cell Biology
28. The study of form and structure of cells and cell organelles is called
1. Cytology
2. Space Biology
3. Histology
4. Cell Biology
29. Computation and analysis of biological data without the use of computer is
1. Bioinformatics
2. Biostatistics
3. Biometry
4. Biotechnology
30. Kingdom fungi includes
1. Multicellular non-saprobic heterotrophs
2. Multicellular saprobic autotrophs
3. Unicellular saprobic heterotrophs
4. Multicellular saprobic heterotrophs
31. Differentiation is studied under
1. Embryology
2. Ecology
3. Evolution
4. Exobiology
32. Statement (S) : Genetic engineering is scientific alteration of the structure of genetic material in a living organisms.
Reason (R) : It is a part of genetics.
1. Both (S) and (R) are true and (R) explains A
2. Both (S) and (R) are true but (R) cannot explain A
3. Only (S) is correct but (R) is wrong
4. Only (R) is correct but (S) is wrong
33. Rearing of honey bees is termed
1. Sericulture
2. Moriculture
3. Silviculture
4. Apiculture
34. One of the following is needed to understand phenomena like diffusion, osmosis and biomembrane transport
1. Biotechnology
2. Biophysics
3. Bioenergetics
4. Biochemistry
35. Statement (S): Study of zoology has a dual purpose.
Reason (R) : The purpose of zoology is secondly to gain the knowledge and firstly to be able to apply this knowledge to the human welfare.
1. Both (S) and (R) are true and (R) explains A
2. Both (S) and (R) are true but (R) cannot explain A
3. Only (S) is correct but (R) is wrong
4. Only (R) is correct but (S) is wrong
36. The use of microorganisms for beneficial purposes is called
1. Microanatomy 2. Microbiology 3. Bioenergetics 4. Biotechnology
37. Statement (S) : Zoology is related to pathology.
Reason (R) : The study of zoology provides adequate knowledge of animal body and its working.
1. Both (S) and (R) are true and (R) explains A
2. Both (S) and (R) are true but (R) cannot explain A
3. Only (S) is correct but (R) is wrong
4. Only (R) is correct but (S) is wrong
38. The study of fossils of multicellular producers is
1. Embryology
2. Ecology
3. Evolution
4. Exobiology
39. Scientific name of the crow that lives in Myanmar is
1. Corvus splendens splendens
2. Corvus splendens protegatus
3. Pediculus humanus capitis
 4. Corvus splendens insolens
40. Classification of organisms helps us to understand
1. diversity among organisms
2. unity among organisms
3. relationships of organisms with environment
4. distribution of organisms

                               KEY
1-1; 2-4; 3-1; 4-4; 5-4; 6-1; 7-1; 8-3; 9-4; 10-1;
11-2; 12-1; 13-3; 14-1; 15-3; 16-2; 17-3; 18-1; 19-4; 20-4
21-4; 22-2; 23-1; 24-2; 25-4; 26-3; 27-4; 28-1; 29-2; 30-4
31-1;32-3;33-4;34-4;35-3;36-4;37-2;38-1;39-4;40-1.
Any key mistakes my be reported as comments. To learn how to post comments click here.

EAMCET-2010 MARKS ANALYSIS

EAMCET-2010 marks have been released today i.e. 16^th June, 2010. In the medical stream, one question is deleted considering it as out of syllabus (Q.No.57 of Set-A about Shannon index)

TOTAL	RANK*	TOTAL	RANK*
156	1-3	119	1093-1170
155	4-4	118	1171-1276
154	5-8	117	1277-1365
153	9-12	116	1366-1461
151	13-16	115	1462-1571
150	17-22	114	1572-1682
149	23-29	113	1683-1803
148	30-35	112	1804-1931
147	36-41	111	1932-2058
146	42-52	110	2059-2176
145	53-64	109	2177-2306
144	65-76	108	2307-2432
143	77-92	107	2433-2567
142	93-101	106	2568-2725
141	102-115	105	2726-2890
140	116-135	104	2891-3060
139	136-154	103	3061-3237
138	155-175	102	3238-3401
137	176-190	101	3402-3574
136	191-211	100	3575-3744
135	212-238	99	3745-3932
134	239-274	98	3933-4126
133	275-315	97	4127-4315
132	316-350	96	4316-4508
131	351-393	95	4509-4691
130	394-433	94	4692-4881
129	434-487	93	4882-5078
128	488-535	92	5079-5302
127	536-592	91	5303-5530
126	593-649	90	5531-5753
125	650-712	89	5754-5966
124	713-778	88	5967-6195
123	779-860	87	6196-6431
122	861-928	86	6432-6701
121	929-1013	85	6702-6957
120	1014-1092	84	6958-7192

* This is based on the EAMET marks onlly. The final rank will be awarded after considering the marks obtained the Intermediate Public Examinatin in optional subjects.

Post your comments. To learn how to post comments click here.

Last Ranks in MBBS and BDS admissions 2009-10

Last Ranks in MBBS Admissions After 3rd Counselling of 2009-10
(click on the table for an enlarged view)

Last Ranks in BDS Admissions After 3rd Counselling of 2009-10

(click on the table for an enlarged view)

Post your comments. To learn how to post comments click here.

EAMCET 2009 Marks and Ranks

EAMCET 2009 Marks and Ranks

EAMCET Score (160)	EAMCET (75)	Inter Optionals (25)	Combined Score (100)	Rank
149	69.844	24.875	94.719	1
149	69.844	24.792	94.636	2
149	69.844	24.667	94.511	3
147	68.906	24.75	93.656	4
147	68.906	24.208	93.114	5
145	67.969	24.958	92.927	6
145	67.969	24.792	92.761	7
145	67.969	24.667	92.636	8
145	67.969	24.542	92.511	9
145	67.969	24.5	92.469	10
143	67.031	24.417	91.448	20
140	65.625	24.792	90.417	30
140	65.625	24.25	89.875	40
139	65.156	24.333	89.489	50
138	64.688	24.375	89.063	60
137	64.219	24.25	88.469	70
136	63.75	24.375	88.125	80
135	63.281	24.708	87.989	90
137	64.219	23.417	87.636	100
132	61.875	24.5	86.375	150
133	62.344	23.292	85.636	200
129	60.469	24.5	84.969	250
130	60.938	23.5	84.438	300
128	60	24.042	84.042	350
128	60	23.667	83.667	400
127	59.531	23.708	83.239	450
127	59.531	23.25	82.781	500
124	58.125	23.958	82.083	600
130	60.938	20.458	81.396	700
121	56.719	24.125	80.844	800
120	56.25	24.083	80.333	900
118	55.312	24.542	79.854	1000
115	53.906	23.625	77.531	1500
114	53.438	22.167	75.605	2000
106	49.688	24.167	73.855	2500
113	52.969	19.208	72.177	3000
108	50.625	18.75	69.375	4000
94	44.062	22.875	66.937	5000
87	40.781	23.75	64.531	6000

How to Calculate Your Combined Score?

EAMCET Part (75)

75% weightage is given to the marks secured in EAMCET

For example, if you obtain 144 marks of out of 140 in EAMCET, your EAMCET score out of 75 is calculated as given below:

(140/160) 75 = 65.625

IPE Part (25)

25% weightage is given to the marks secured in optional subjects (Botany, Zoology, Physics, Chemistry) of IPE

For example, if you secured 580 out of 600 in the optional subjects (Botany, Zoology, Physics and Chemistry papers of first year and second year intermediate (both theory and practical), your IPE score out of 25 is calculated as given below:

(580/600) 25 = 24.167

Combined Score (out of 100)

Your combined score (out of 100) = EAMCET (75) + IPE (25)

In the above example, combined score = 65.625 + 24.167 = 89.792

Ranking Criteria

In case of more than one student securing the same combined score, the tie shall be resolved to decide the relative ranking by successively considering the following:

1. The total marks secured in EAMCET

2. The Marks secured in Biology in EAMCET

3. The marks secured in Physics in EAMCET

4. The Percentage of Aggregate marks secured in the qualifying examination

5. If the tie still persists the date of birth of the concerned candidates, the older being given preference over the younger.

Post your comments. To learn how to post comments click here.