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Sunday, July 4, 2010

Zoology - The Basics: Biological Classification upto Cladistic Classification


1. Wings of sparrows and flying squirrels are

1. Homologous characters that resulted from convergent evolution
2. Homologous characters that resulted from divergent evolution
3. Analogous characters that resulted from convergent evolution
4. Analogous characters that resulted from divergent evolution
2. Name of the basic taxonomic unit was coined by a
1. British naturalist
2. Sweedish botanist
3. Greek scholar
4. French biologist
3. Author of Systema Naturae is the father of
1. Taxonomy
2. Genetics
3. Evolution
4. Ecology
4. Homologous organs are shared by a pair of organisms due to
1. convergent evolution from common ancestors
2. divergent evolution from common ancestors
3. convergent evolution from different ancestors
4. divergent evolution from different ancestors
5. Study the following:
A. Father of British Natural History.
B. Author of Historia Generalis Plantarum.
C. Coined the term species.
D. Differentiated between genus and species.
Which of the above are applicable to John Ray?
1. A, B and C
2. A, B and D
3. B, C and D
4. All
6. Arrange the following in ascending order:
A. Number of animal species that have been identified and described so far
B. Number of animals recorded in Vedic literature
C. Number of plants listed in Species Plantarum
D. Number of plants recorded in Vedic literature
E. Number of plants and animals described in Historia Generalis Plantarum
F. Number of species of organisms described so far
1. BDCEAF
2. DBCEFA
3. BDECAF
4. BCDEAF
7. Consider the following statements:
I. Father of Taxonomy is the Founder of Modern Systematics.
II. Father of British Natural History is the father of evolution.
III. Author of Species Plantarum is the father of Taxonomy.
Which of the above are true?
1. Only I and II
2. Only II and III
3. Only I and III
4. All are true
8. Animals were classified on the basis of presence or absence of blood by
1. Linnaeus
2. Aristotle
3. Pliny
4. Cuvier
9. Linnaeus divided animalia into
1. Ameia and Anaemia
2. Quadrupedes, Birds and Amphibia
3. Aquatilia, Terrestria and Volatilia
4. Insects, Fishes, Birds and Whales
10. Who arranged animals into Insects, Fishes, Birds and Whales?
1. Aristotle
2. Pliny
3. Linnaeus
4. Hippocrates
11. Assertion (A): Earlier taxonomists followed artificial classification but not natural    classification.
Reason (R): The idea of classification was established before evolution was understood.
1. Both 'A' and 'R' are true and 'R' is the correct explanation of 'A'.
2. Both 'A' and 'R' are true but 'R' is not the correct explanation of 'A'.
3. 'A' is true but 'R' is false.
4. 'A' is false but 'R' is true.
12. Assertion (A): Linnaeus tried an artificial system of classification.
Reason (R): His system of classification is based on the idea that species show different degrees of mutual relatedness.
1. Both 'A' and 'R' are true and 'R' is the correct explanation of 'A'.
2. Both 'A' and 'R' are true but 'R' is not the correct explanation of 'A'.
3. 'A' is true but 'R' is false.
4. 'A' is false but 'R' is true.
13. Homologous organs are followed in this classification
1. Artificial classification
2. Evolutionary classification
3. Numerical classification
4. Linnaean classification
14. The method of representing phylogeny by means of trees or branching diagrams was introduced by the scientist who also introduced the term
1. Evolution
2. Genetics
3. Taxonomy
4. Ecology
15. Consider the following statements:
I. It is based on many characters, with equal weightage to all.
II. It summarized the genetic distance between all the species.
III. Quite unrelated animals come under one category.
IV. It does not consider phylogeny.
Which of the above are applicable to numerical classification?
1. I only
2. I, III and IV
3. I and IV only
4. I, II and IV only.
Entamoeba histolytica - Structure
16. Consider the following statements about Entamoeba histolytica:
I. It has a vesicular and cart-wheel like nucleus.
II. A small endosome or nucleolus lies in the centre of the nucleus.
III. Minute beads attached to the inner surface of the nuclear membrane are made up of chromatin.
IV. Chromatin filaments that radiate like spokes of a wheel from endosome to the inner surface of nuclear membrane constitute most of the chromatin.
Which of the above are true?
1. All except I
2. All except III
3. All except IV
4. All are true.
17. Assertion (A): Entamoeba histolytica is a monopodial form.
Reason (R): It completes its life cycle in a single host.
1. Both 'A' and 'R' are true and 'R' is the correct explanation of 'A'.
2. Both 'A' and 'R' are true but 'R' is not the correct explanation of 'A'.
3. 'A' is true but 'R' is false.
4. 'A' is false but 'R' is true.
18. The name Entamoeba was proposed by
1.Lambell
2. Shortt and Garnham
3. Losch
4. Cosagrandi and Barbogallow
19. Entamoeba histolytica dissolves tissues by releasing
1. Proteolytic enzymes called haemolysins
2. Lipolytic enzymes called histolysins
3. Proteolytic enzymes called histolysins
4. Lipolytic enzymes called haemolysins
20. Study the following:
A. Sarcomastigophora B. Entamoeba C. Rhozopodea D. histolytica E. Protozoa
Arrange the above taxa from lower to higher level
1.E A C B D
2. D B A C E
3. D B E C A
4. D B C A E
21. In the nucleus of Entamoeba histolytica, much of the chromatin occurs in the form of
1. spokes of wheel
2. endosome
3. minute beads
4. nuclear membrane
22. Pathogenic stage of Entamoeba histolytica is
1. tetranucleate cyst
2. sporozoite
3. trophozoite
4. metacystic form
23. Entamoeba histolytica is
1. monoxenous, histozoic, and pathogenic ectoparasite
2. monogenetic, histozoic, and pathogenic endoparasite
3. monoxenous, cytozoic, and pathogenic endoparasite
4. monogenetic, histozoic, and non-pathogenic endoparasite
24. Assertion (A): Entamoeba histolytica is an obligate anaerobe.
Reason (R): Mitochondria are absent in Entamoeba histolytica.
1. Both 'A' and 'R' are true and 'R' is the correct explanation of 'A'.
2. Both 'A' and 'R' are true but 'R' is not the correct explanation of 'A'.
3. 'A' is true but 'R' is false.
4. 'A' is false but 'R' is true.
25. Trophozoite of Entamoeba histolytica has
1. many short blunt and fingerlike pseudopodia
2. single short blunt and fingerlike pseudopodium
3. single short filamentous pseudopodium
4. single long blunt and fingerlike pseudopodium


KEY
  1-3;   2-1;   3-1;  4-2;   5-4;   6-1;  7-3;    8-2;    9-2;   10-4;
11-1; 12-2; 13-2; 14-4; 15-3; 16-3; 17-2;  18-4;  19-3;  20-4;
21-3; 22-3; 23-2; 24-2; 25-2
More Questions to be published on 5th July 9.00 a.m.

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Sunday, June 27, 2010

Zoology - The Basics upto Tautonymy

1. The branch of genetics that deals with the practice of phenotypic improvement of humans after birth is
1. Euphenics
2. eugenics
3. biotechnology
4. bioinformatics
2. If a genus or species is given two different names by different authors accidentally, only the earlier one is the
1. junior synonym
2. junior homonym
3. senior homonym
4. valid name
3. Unicellular eukaryotes are included in the kingdom
1. Protista
2. Mycota
3. Metazoa
4. Metazoa
4. Set of rules followed for naming animals is known as
1. ICZ
2. IUCN
3. IBW
4. ICZN
5. Which of the following scientific names is correctly written?
1. Felis leo (Linnaeus, 1758)
2. Felis Leo Linnaeus, 1758
3. Panthera leo Linnaeus, 1758
4. Felis leo L., 1758
6. Application of mathematics to biology is termed
1. biometry
2. anthropology
3. eugenics
4. biotechnology
7. Branch of genetics that deals with the application of knowledge in genetics to human welfare is
1. eugenics
2. euphenics
3. euthenics
4. disgenics
8. The shape and arrangement of cells in a tissue is related to the basic priciples of
1. Biology
2. Chemistry
3. Physics
4. Mathematics
9. Find the wrong match
1. Buffon – Natural history
2. Cuvier – Morphology
3. Claude Bernard - Homeostasis
4. Richard Owen – Analogy
10. Match the following and choose the correct combination.
Term                                  Coined by
A. Organic Evolution          1. Gregor Mendel
B. Taxonomy                     2. A.P. de Candolle
C. Genetics                        3. Haeckel
D. Ecology                         4. Bateson
                                          5. Herbert Spencer
1. A-5; B-2; C-4; D-3
2. A-5; B-2; C-1; D-3
3. A-5; B-4; C-2; D-3
4. A-3; B-2; C-4; D-5
11. In five kingdom classification, prokaryotes are included in
1. Protista
2. Monera
3. Animalia
4. Plantae
12. Study of multicellular producers is
1. botany
2. zoology
3. mycology
4. bacteriology
13. Georges Cuvier proposed the genus Echidna in 1797 for the spiny anteater. However, Johann Reinhold Forster had published the name Echidna in 1777 for a genus of moray eels (fish). Johann Karl Wilhelm Illiger published the valid name Tachyglossus for the spiny ant eater in 1811. The name published by Cuvier is considered as
1. junior synonym
2. senior synonym
3. junior homonym
4. senior homonym
14. Consider the following statements:
I. Bioenergetics is the branch of biochemistry.
II. Genetic engineering is a part of biotechnology.
III. Systematics is a key part of taxonomy.
Which of the above are true?
1. Only I and II
2. Only II and III
3. Only I and III
4. All are true
15. The study of continuous genetic adaptations of organisms to the environment is
1. Genetics
2. Ecology
3. Evolution
4. Ethology
16. Match the following and choose the correct combination.
     Branch of Biology            Deals With the Study of
A. Palaeobotany                    1. Fossilized remains of plants
B. Ethology                            2. Tissues
C. Microanatomy                   3. Fossilized remains of animals
D. Exobiology                        4. Animal behaviour
                                             5. Extra-terrestrial life
1. A-3; B-4; C-2; D-5
2. A-1; B-4; C-2; D-5
3. A-1; B-5; C-2; D-4
4. A-1; B-5; C-2; D-4
17. Match the following and choose the correct combination.
       Scientist                         Contribution
A. Georges Cuvier                1. Natural Selection
B. Claude Bernard                2. Homeostasis
C. Richard Owen                  3. Comparative Anatomy
D. Buffon                              4. Natural History
                                             5. Homology
1. A-3; B-2; C-5; D-1
2. A-3; B-2; C-4; D-5
3. A-3; B-2; C-5; D-4
4. A-2; B-3; C-5; D-4
18. Consider the following statements:
I. Eugenics is the branch of genetics that deals with the practice of phenotypic improvement of humans after birth.
II. Bioenergetics is the branch of biophysics concerned with study of the transformation and use of energy by living cells of organisms.
III. Biotechnology is the branch of biology that deals with the use of biological agents for beneficial purposes.
IV. Genetic Engineering is a part of biotechnology that involves the production and use of recombinant DNA.
Which of the above statements are true?
1. III and IV only
2. I, III and IV only
3. II, III and IV only
4. All are true
19. Match the following:

     Set-I                         Set- II
A. Richard Owen          1. Natural history
B. Claude Bernard        2. Natural selection
C. Louis-de Buffon       3. Homeostasis
D. Georges Cuvier        4. Comparative anatomy
                                     5. Homology
The correct match is
1. A - 5 B - 3 C - 2 D – 4
2. A - 5 B - 4 C - 1 D – 3
3. A - 1 B - 3 C - 5 D – 4
4. A - 5 B - 3 C - 1 D – 4
20. Carolus Linnaeus described binomial nomenclature in the
1. 8th edition of Systema Naturae
2. 10th edition of Origin of Species
3. 1st edition of Species Plantarum
4. 10th edition of Systema Naturae
21. If a genus or species is given two different names by different authors accidentally, only the earlier one is called
1. junior synonym, and is the valid name
2. junior homonym, and is the valid name
3. senior synonym, and is the invalid name
4. senior synonym, and is the valid name
22. This system of nomenclature is used to name subspecies
1. binominal nomenclature
2. trinominal nomenclature
3. binomial nomenclature
4. tautonymy
23. Tautonymy is the practice of naming animals in which
1. generic name and specific name are the same
2. specific name and the subspecific name are the same
3. generic name and specific name are different
4. genetic name is an adjective and specific name is a noun
24. Genetic engineering is a part of
1. Genetics
2. Biotechnology
3. Ethology
4. Biochemistry
25. This is needed to understand the formation of animal fossils
1. Palaeobotany
2. Palaeozoology
3. Palaeontology
4. Geology
26. Microanatomy is also known as
1. Microbiology
2. Anatomy
3. Histology
4. Mycology
27. The study of cell as a structural and functional unit of living organisms is called
1. Cytology
2. Space Biology
3. Histology
4. Cell Biology
28. The study of form and structure of cells and cell organelles is called
1. Cytology
2. Space Biology
3. Histology
4. Cell Biology
29. Computation and analysis of biological data without the use of computer is
1. Bioinformatics
2. Biostatistics
3. Biometry
4. Biotechnology
30. Kingdom fungi includes
1. Multicellular non-saprobic heterotrophs
2. Multicellular saprobic autotrophs
3. Unicellular saprobic heterotrophs
4. Multicellular saprobic heterotrophs
31. Differentiation is studied under
1. Embryology
2. Ecology
3. Evolution
4. Exobiology
32. Statement (S) : Genetic engineering is scientific alteration of the structure of genetic material in a living organisms.
Reason (R) : It is a part of genetics.
1. Both (S) and (R) are true and (R) explains A
2. Both (S) and (R) are true but (R) cannot explain A
3. Only (S) is correct but (R) is wrong
4. Only (R) is correct but (S) is wrong
33. Rearing of honey bees is termed
1. Sericulture
2. Moriculture
3. Silviculture
4. Apiculture
34. One of the following is needed to understand phenomena like diffusion, osmosis and biomembrane transport
1. Biotechnology
2. Biophysics
3. Bioenergetics
4. Biochemistry
35. Statement (S): Study of zoology has a dual purpose.
Reason (R) : The purpose of zoology is secondly to gain the knowledge and firstly to be able to apply this knowledge to the human welfare.
1. Both (S) and (R) are true and (R) explains A
2. Both (S) and (R) are true but (R) cannot explain A
3. Only (S) is correct but (R) is wrong
4. Only (R) is correct but (S) is wrong
36. The use of microorganisms for beneficial purposes is called
1. Microanatomy 2. Microbiology 3. Bioenergetics 4. Biotechnology
37. Statement (S) : Zoology is related to pathology.
Reason (R) : The study of zoology provides adequate knowledge of animal body and its working.
1. Both (S) and (R) are true and (R) explains A
2. Both (S) and (R) are true but (R) cannot explain A
3. Only (S) is correct but (R) is wrong
4. Only (R) is correct but (S) is wrong
38. The study of fossils of multicellular producers is
1. Embryology
2. Ecology
3. Evolution
4. Exobiology
39. Scientific name of the crow that lives in Myanmar is
1. Corvus splendens splendens
2. Corvus splendens protegatus
3. Pediculus humanus capitis
 4. Corvus splendens insolens
40. Classification of organisms helps us to understand
1. diversity among organisms
2. unity among organisms
3. relationships of organisms with environment
4. distribution of organisms

                               KEY
1-1; 2-4; 3-1; 4-4; 5-4; 6-1; 7-1; 8-3; 9-4; 10-1;
11-2; 12-1; 13-3; 14-1; 15-3; 16-2; 17-3; 18-1; 19-4; 20-4
21-4; 22-2; 23-1; 24-2; 25-4; 26-3; 27-4; 28-1; 29-2; 30-4
31-1;32-3;33-4;34-4;35-3;36-4;37-2;38-1;39-4;40-1.
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Wednesday, June 16, 2010

EAMCET-2010 MARKS ANALYSIS


EAMCET-2010 marks have been released today i.e. 16th June, 2010. In the medical stream, one question is deleted considering it as out of syllabus (Q.No.57 of Set-A about Shannon index)


TOTAL

RANK*

TOTAL

RANK*
156
1-3
119
1093-1170
155
4-4
118
1171-1276
154
5-8
117
1277-1365
153
9-12
116
1366-1461
151
13-16
115
1462-1571
150
17-22
114
1572-1682
149
23-29
113
1683-1803
148
30-35
112
1804-1931
147
36-41
111
1932-2058
146
42-52
110
2059-2176
145
53-64
109
2177-2306
144
65-76
108
2307-2432
143
77-92
107
2433-2567
142
93-101
106
2568-2725
141
102-115
105
2726-2890
140
116-135
104
2891-3060
139
136-154
103
3061-3237
138
155-175
102
3238-3401
137
176-190
101
3402-3574
136
191-211
100
3575-3744
135
212-238
99
3745-3932
134
239-274
98
3933-4126
133
275-315
97
4127-4315
132
316-350
96
4316-4508
131
351-393
95
4509-4691
130
394-433
94
4692-4881
129
434-487
93
4882-5078
128
488-535
92
5079-5302
127
536-592
91
5303-5530
126
593-649
90
5531-5753
125
650-712
89
5754-5966
124
713-778
88
5967-6195
123
779-860
87
6196-6431
122
861-928
86
6432-6701
121
929-1013
85
6702-6957
120
1014-1092
84
6958-7192
* This is based on the EAMET marks onlly. The final rank will be awarded after considering the marks obtained the Intermediate Public Examinatin in optional subjects.


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