Excellent animaitons on voltage gated channels, action potential, synaptic transmission, etc.
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Sodium Potassium Pump
Voltage Gated Channels
Channel Gating During Action Potential
Propagation of Action Potential
Saltatory and Continuous Propagation
Synaptic Transmission
Nerve Impulse
Monday, January 28, 2008
Sunday, January 27, 2008
Jr.Grand Test-2 - Key
41) 1 42) 3 43) 4 44) 3 45) 1 46) 1 47) 3 48) 4 49) 2 50) 1
51) 3 52) 4 53) 2 54) 4 55) 3 56) 2 57) 2 58) 2 59) 4 60) 3
61) 2 62) 2 63) 4 64) 1 65) 4 66) 2 67) 3 68) 2 69) 2 70) 4
71) 3 72) 4 73) 4 74) 4 75) 2 76) 1 77) 4 78) 4 79) 4 80) 4
51) 3 52) 4 53) 2 54) 4 55) 3 56) 2 57) 2 58) 2 59) 4 60) 3
61) 2 62) 2 63) 4 64) 1 65) 4 66) 2 67) 3 68) 2 69) 2 70) 4
71) 3 72) 4 73) 4 74) 4 75) 2 76) 1 77) 4 78) 4 79) 4 80) 4
Jr. Grand Test-2
41. Hominoidea is a
(1) super-family
(2) sub-family
(3) super-class
(4) Family
41. Hominoidea is a
(1) super-family
(2) sub-family
(3) super-class
(4) Family
42. Which of the following statements is not applicable to Euglena?
(1) Its flagellum has one row of lateral appendages on the axoneme up to the tip.
(2) Cytokinesis occurs from anterior end to posterior end parallel to plane of karyokinesis.
(3) It shows holophytic nutrition and saprophytic nutrition in the presence of light.
(4) Its shows oriented movements towards the source of light.
43. Which of the following are unicellular decomposers?
(1) Blue green algae
(2) Diatoms
(3) Mushrooms
(4) Yeasts
Endodyogeny is exhibited by
(1) Nosema
(2) Haplosporidium
(3) Monocystis
(4) Toxoplasms
44. Study the following about pseudopodia:
Pseudopodia Character Example
I. Myxopodia Filamentous and unbranched Globigerina
II. Lobopodia Rounded tips Amoeba proteus
III. Actinopodia Granular cytoplasm Collozoum
IV. Filopodia Composed of only endoplasm Lecithium
Which of the above are correct?
(1) II and III Only
(2) I, II and III only
(3) II, III and IV only
(4) All are correct
45. Study the following about ciliate protozoans:
I. A peritrich has cilia all over the body.
II. A holotrich has peristomial cilia only
III. Holotriches are primitive forms.
IV. Peritriches are advanced forms.
The correct ones of the above are
(1) III and IV only
(2) I, II and III only
(3) II, III and IV only
(4) All are true
46. Consider the following statements about binary fission in Euglena:
I. Old flagella are retained by one daughter while the other develops new flagella
II. Contractile vacuole, stigma and paraflagellar body disappear and newly appear in daughters
III. Blepharoplasts and chromatophores do not divide during binary fission
Which of the above statements are true?
(1) Only I and II are true
(2) Only II and III are true
(3) Only I and III are true
(4) I, II and III are true
47. Which of the following character of conjugation in Vorticella is a deviation from the definition of conjugation given by Wichterman?
(1) In Vorticella, both the conjugants belong to the same mating type.
(2) In Vorticella both the conjugants are morphologically similar.
(3) After exchange of pronuclei, conjugants in Vorticella do not dissociate.
(4) Conjugation in Vorticella does not bring about nuclear reorganization.
48. Cephalization is associated with
(1) radial symmetry
(2) biradial symmetry
(3) spherical symmetry
(4) bilateral symmetry
49. The red bone marrow is composed of
(1)Adipose tissue and Reticular connective tissue
(2) Reticular connective tissue and blood vessels
(3) Areolar connective tissue and muscle fibres
(4) Adipose tissue and hydroxy apatite
50. Cells that form a part of blood-brain barrier are
(1) astrocytes
(2) ependymal cells
(3) microglia
(4) histiocytes
51. Iris muscles of mammals are
(1) ectodermal striated muscles
(2) mesodermal striated muscles
(3) ectodermal smooth muscles
(4) mesodermal smooth muscles
52. Type and origin of muscles that regulate the pupil of eye are
(1) Smooth, visceral, ectodermal
(2) Smooth, non-visceral, mesodermal
(3) Striped, non-visceral, ectodermal
(4) Smooth, non-visceral, ectodermal
53. Interneuron connects
(1) dendrite of sensory neuron and axon of motor neuron
(2) axon of sensory neuron and dendrite of motor neuron
(3) dendrite of sensory neuron and dendrite of motor neuron
(4) axon of sensory neuron and axon of motor neuron
54. Number of protractor muscles in each segment of Lumbricus is
(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 8
(4) 16
55. Intestinal caeca of Pheretima secrete
(1) proteolytic enzymes
(2) lipolytic enzymes
(3) amylatic enzymes
(4)trypsin
56. The following are the blood vessels in Pheretima posthuma:
A. Ventro-intestinals B. Ventro-tegumentaries C. Dorso-intestinals D. Commissurals
What is the correct sequence of these vessels in descending order of their number?
(1) A D B C
(2) C B D A
(3) B C D A
(4) C D B A
57. Number of septa in Pheretima that do not bear septal nephridia is
(1) 9
(2) 10
(3) 11
(4) 14
58. Spermatogonia of earthworm transform into spermatozoa in
(1) testes
(2) septal pouches
(3) spermathecae
(4) spermiducal funnels
59. Consider the following statements about genital pouch of female Periplaneta:
I. Floor of brood pouch is formed by gynovalvular plates.
II. Anterior wall of brood pouch bears female genital aperture.
III. Roof of brood pouch bears one pair of gonapophyses.
Which of the above are true?
(1) Only I and II
(2) Only II and III
(3) Only I and III
(4) All are true
60. Which of the following statements about Periplaneta americana is true?
(1) All the tarsomeres except pretarsus bear thermoreceptor sensilla.
(2) All the podomeres are movably articulated to one another.
(3) All the rectangular nota bear wings.
(4) All the mouthparts are modified cephalic appendages.
61. In cockroach, what is the correct path of passage of saliva from acini to reservoir?
A. Receptacular duct B. Common salivary duct C. Efferent salivary duct
D. Common receptacular duct E. Median salivary duct
(1) B E D C
(2) B E D A
(3) A D E B
(4) B E A D
62. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(1) In male mosquitoes, epipharynx is fused with labrum.
(2) In housefly, food canal is formed by the apposition of labium-epipharynx.
(3) In adult Bombyx, hypopharynx is absent.
(4) In female mosquitoes, hypopharynx is a long and flat structure that contains salivary canal.
63. Consider the following statements:
I. Trichomonas vaginalis is a coelozoic parasite having four flagella.
II. Nosema notabilis is a hyperparasite that produces spores with polar filament.
III. Leishmania donovani is a cytozoic parasite having a vector host with piercing and sucking
mouthparts.
IV. Diplozoon paradoxum is a monogenetic parasitic having bifid intestine.
Which of the above are true?
(1) All except II
(2) All except III
(3) All except IV
(4) All are true
64. In the life cycle of Plasmodium, exflagellation occurs in
(1) stomach of mosquito
(2) salivary glands of mosquito
(3) liver cells of man
(4) RBCs of man
65. Find the correct statement about Plasmodium vivax.
(1) Cytoplasm of amoeboid stage contains Schuffner's dots.
(2) Microgamete has reception cone or fertilization cone.
(3) Flagellated body has eight flagella.
(4) Sporozoite has hollow peripheral microtubules.
66. Budding zone in Taenia solium is
(1) scolex
(2) neck
(3) strobila
(4) head
67. Which of the following statements about nematodes is true?
(1) Syncytial epidermis is formed by the fusion of cells in all nematodes.
(2) Syncytial epidermis is formed by free nuclear divisions in all nematodes.
(3) Syncytial epidermis is formed by the fusion of cells in some nematodes.
(4) Syncytial epidermis is formed by free nuclear divisions in some nematodes.
68. Consider the following statements about annelids:
I. Development is direct in monoecious annelids.
II. Clitellum is absent in dioecious annelids.
III. Fertilization occurs in cocoon in all monoecious annelids.
IV. Gonoducts are absent in dioecious annelids
Which of the above statements are correct?
(1) I, II and III only
(2) I, II and IV only
(3) I, III and IV only
(4) I, II, III and IV
69. Single genital pore is situated at the posterior end of the body in
(1) Scolopendra and Spirostreptus
(2) Lepisma and Scolopendra
(3) Julus and Pediculus
(4) Scutigera and Palaemon
70. Both osphradium and radula are present in
(1) Unio
(2) Chiton
(3) Sepia
(4) Pila
71. Consider the following statements:
I. Cells are present but nerve cells are absent in sponges.
II. Nerve cells are present but nerves are absent in jelly fish.
III. Nerves are present but brain is absent in star fish.
IV. Brain is present but brain case is absent in devil fish.
Which of the above are true?
(1) All except II
(2) All except III
(3) All except IV
(4) All are true
72. Spines are present but pedicillariae are absent in
(1) Antedon
(2) Asterias
(3) Holothuria
(4) Ophiothrix
73. Influence of light on locomotory speed of animals is called
(1) phototaxis
(2) phototropism
(3) photoperiodism
(4) photokinesis
74. Thermal migration is exhibited by
(1) Poikilotherms only
(2) Homeotherms only
(3) Eurythermal animals only
(4) Both poikilotherms and homeotherms
75. Arrange the following in the increasing order of complexity
A. Biome B. Population C. Biosphere D. Community
(1) B, A, D, C
(2) B, D, A, C
(3) D, B, A, C
(4) B, D, C, A
76. Kanha National Park is present in
(1) Madhya Pradesh
(2) Maharashtra
(3) Rajasthan
(4) Uttaranchal
77. Force that acts against maximum population growth is
(1) biotic potential
(2) high natality
(3) exponential growth
(4) environmental resistance
78. Study the following about minor air pollutants:
Pollutant Source Effect
I. Tetraethyl lead Automobile exhaust Minimata disease
II. Methane Brick kilns Global warming
III. Benzopyrene Cigarette smoke Cancer
IV. Pollen grains Plants like Parthenium Cyanosis
Which of the above are correct?
(1) I and II
(2) I and III
(3) III and IV
(4) II and III
Study the following:
Drug Obtained From Used in treatment of
I. Vinblastin Vinca Cancer
II. Quinine Cinchona tree Malaria
III. Digitalin Foxglove plant Chronic heart trouble
IV. Morphine Poppy plant Hypertension
Which of the above are true?
(1). Only II and III
(2). Only I, II and III
(3). Only II, III and IV
(4). All are true
79. Study the following:
Pollutant Source Effect
I. Lead Pesticide industries Anaemia
II. Silver Photographic laboratory waste Arrhythmia
III. Cadmium Electroplating Industries Kidney necrosis
IV. Arsenic Pesticide industries Muscular atrophy
Which of the above are true?
(1) All except I
(2) All except II
(3) All except III
(4) All are true
Find the wrong match:
(1) Red Panda Ailurus ochraceus
(2) Kashmiri stag Cervus elephus hangalu
(3) Siberian crane Grus lceuogeranus
(4) Pigmy hog Sus scorfa
80. Find the incorrect statement.
(1) Methyl chloroform is an industrial chemical that acts as ozone depleting substance (ODS).
(2) Methyl mercury is an ODS that has comparatively a less damaging effect on the ozone in
the Stratosphere.
(3) Dimethyl mercury is a secondary pollutant formed by the action of anaerobic
microorganisms on mercury
(4) Trimethylamine oxide is stored by cartilaginous fishes in their blood to make their body fluids hypertonic.
Antihypertensive drug is obtained from
(1) poppy plant
(2) vinca
(3) foxglove plant
(4) sarpagandha
KEY
(1) super-family
(2) sub-family
(3) super-class
(4) Family
41. Hominoidea is a
(1) super-family
(2) sub-family
(3) super-class
(4) Family
42. Which of the following statements is not applicable to Euglena?
(1) Its flagellum has one row of lateral appendages on the axoneme up to the tip.
(2) Cytokinesis occurs from anterior end to posterior end parallel to plane of karyokinesis.
(3) It shows holophytic nutrition and saprophytic nutrition in the presence of light.
(4) Its shows oriented movements towards the source of light.
43. Which of the following are unicellular decomposers?
(1) Blue green algae
(2) Diatoms
(3) Mushrooms
(4) Yeasts
Endodyogeny is exhibited by
(1) Nosema
(2) Haplosporidium
(3) Monocystis
(4) Toxoplasms
44. Study the following about pseudopodia:
Pseudopodia Character Example
I. Myxopodia Filamentous and unbranched Globigerina
II. Lobopodia Rounded tips Amoeba proteus
III. Actinopodia Granular cytoplasm Collozoum
IV. Filopodia Composed of only endoplasm Lecithium
Which of the above are correct?
(1) II and III Only
(2) I, II and III only
(3) II, III and IV only
(4) All are correct
45. Study the following about ciliate protozoans:
I. A peritrich has cilia all over the body.
II. A holotrich has peristomial cilia only
III. Holotriches are primitive forms.
IV. Peritriches are advanced forms.
The correct ones of the above are
(1) III and IV only
(2) I, II and III only
(3) II, III and IV only
(4) All are true
46. Consider the following statements about binary fission in Euglena:
I. Old flagella are retained by one daughter while the other develops new flagella
II. Contractile vacuole, stigma and paraflagellar body disappear and newly appear in daughters
III. Blepharoplasts and chromatophores do not divide during binary fission
Which of the above statements are true?
(1) Only I and II are true
(2) Only II and III are true
(3) Only I and III are true
(4) I, II and III are true
47. Which of the following character of conjugation in Vorticella is a deviation from the definition of conjugation given by Wichterman?
(1) In Vorticella, both the conjugants belong to the same mating type.
(2) In Vorticella both the conjugants are morphologically similar.
(3) After exchange of pronuclei, conjugants in Vorticella do not dissociate.
(4) Conjugation in Vorticella does not bring about nuclear reorganization.
48. Cephalization is associated with
(1) radial symmetry
(2) biradial symmetry
(3) spherical symmetry
(4) bilateral symmetry
49. The red bone marrow is composed of
(1)Adipose tissue and Reticular connective tissue
(2) Reticular connective tissue and blood vessels
(3) Areolar connective tissue and muscle fibres
(4) Adipose tissue and hydroxy apatite
50. Cells that form a part of blood-brain barrier are
(1) astrocytes
(2) ependymal cells
(3) microglia
(4) histiocytes
51. Iris muscles of mammals are
(1) ectodermal striated muscles
(2) mesodermal striated muscles
(3) ectodermal smooth muscles
(4) mesodermal smooth muscles
52. Type and origin of muscles that regulate the pupil of eye are
(1) Smooth, visceral, ectodermal
(2) Smooth, non-visceral, mesodermal
(3) Striped, non-visceral, ectodermal
(4) Smooth, non-visceral, ectodermal
53. Interneuron connects
(1) dendrite of sensory neuron and axon of motor neuron
(2) axon of sensory neuron and dendrite of motor neuron
(3) dendrite of sensory neuron and dendrite of motor neuron
(4) axon of sensory neuron and axon of motor neuron
54. Number of protractor muscles in each segment of Lumbricus is
(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 8
(4) 16
55. Intestinal caeca of Pheretima secrete
(1) proteolytic enzymes
(2) lipolytic enzymes
(3) amylatic enzymes
(4)trypsin
56. The following are the blood vessels in Pheretima posthuma:
A. Ventro-intestinals B. Ventro-tegumentaries C. Dorso-intestinals D. Commissurals
What is the correct sequence of these vessels in descending order of their number?
(1) A D B C
(2) C B D A
(3) B C D A
(4) C D B A
57. Number of septa in Pheretima that do not bear septal nephridia is
(1) 9
(2) 10
(3) 11
(4) 14
58. Spermatogonia of earthworm transform into spermatozoa in
(1) testes
(2) septal pouches
(3) spermathecae
(4) spermiducal funnels
59. Consider the following statements about genital pouch of female Periplaneta:
I. Floor of brood pouch is formed by gynovalvular plates.
II. Anterior wall of brood pouch bears female genital aperture.
III. Roof of brood pouch bears one pair of gonapophyses.
Which of the above are true?
(1) Only I and II
(2) Only II and III
(3) Only I and III
(4) All are true
60. Which of the following statements about Periplaneta americana is true?
(1) All the tarsomeres except pretarsus bear thermoreceptor sensilla.
(2) All the podomeres are movably articulated to one another.
(3) All the rectangular nota bear wings.
(4) All the mouthparts are modified cephalic appendages.
61. In cockroach, what is the correct path of passage of saliva from acini to reservoir?
A. Receptacular duct B. Common salivary duct C. Efferent salivary duct
D. Common receptacular duct E. Median salivary duct
(1) B E D C
(2) B E D A
(3) A D E B
(4) B E A D
62. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(1) In male mosquitoes, epipharynx is fused with labrum.
(2) In housefly, food canal is formed by the apposition of labium-epipharynx.
(3) In adult Bombyx, hypopharynx is absent.
(4) In female mosquitoes, hypopharynx is a long and flat structure that contains salivary canal.
63. Consider the following statements:
I. Trichomonas vaginalis is a coelozoic parasite having four flagella.
II. Nosema notabilis is a hyperparasite that produces spores with polar filament.
III. Leishmania donovani is a cytozoic parasite having a vector host with piercing and sucking
mouthparts.
IV. Diplozoon paradoxum is a monogenetic parasitic having bifid intestine.
Which of the above are true?
(1) All except II
(2) All except III
(3) All except IV
(4) All are true
64. In the life cycle of Plasmodium, exflagellation occurs in
(1) stomach of mosquito
(2) salivary glands of mosquito
(3) liver cells of man
(4) RBCs of man
65. Find the correct statement about Plasmodium vivax.
(1) Cytoplasm of amoeboid stage contains Schuffner's dots.
(2) Microgamete has reception cone or fertilization cone.
(3) Flagellated body has eight flagella.
(4) Sporozoite has hollow peripheral microtubules.
66. Budding zone in Taenia solium is
(1) scolex
(2) neck
(3) strobila
(4) head
67. Which of the following statements about nematodes is true?
(1) Syncytial epidermis is formed by the fusion of cells in all nematodes.
(2) Syncytial epidermis is formed by free nuclear divisions in all nematodes.
(3) Syncytial epidermis is formed by the fusion of cells in some nematodes.
(4) Syncytial epidermis is formed by free nuclear divisions in some nematodes.
68. Consider the following statements about annelids:
I. Development is direct in monoecious annelids.
II. Clitellum is absent in dioecious annelids.
III. Fertilization occurs in cocoon in all monoecious annelids.
IV. Gonoducts are absent in dioecious annelids
Which of the above statements are correct?
(1) I, II and III only
(2) I, II and IV only
(3) I, III and IV only
(4) I, II, III and IV
69. Single genital pore is situated at the posterior end of the body in
(1) Scolopendra and Spirostreptus
(2) Lepisma and Scolopendra
(3) Julus and Pediculus
(4) Scutigera and Palaemon
70. Both osphradium and radula are present in
(1) Unio
(2) Chiton
(3) Sepia
(4) Pila
71. Consider the following statements:
I. Cells are present but nerve cells are absent in sponges.
II. Nerve cells are present but nerves are absent in jelly fish.
III. Nerves are present but brain is absent in star fish.
IV. Brain is present but brain case is absent in devil fish.
Which of the above are true?
(1) All except II
(2) All except III
(3) All except IV
(4) All are true
72. Spines are present but pedicillariae are absent in
(1) Antedon
(2) Asterias
(3) Holothuria
(4) Ophiothrix
73. Influence of light on locomotory speed of animals is called
(1) phototaxis
(2) phototropism
(3) photoperiodism
(4) photokinesis
74. Thermal migration is exhibited by
(1) Poikilotherms only
(2) Homeotherms only
(3) Eurythermal animals only
(4) Both poikilotherms and homeotherms
75. Arrange the following in the increasing order of complexity
A. Biome B. Population C. Biosphere D. Community
(1) B, A, D, C
(2) B, D, A, C
(3) D, B, A, C
(4) B, D, C, A
76. Kanha National Park is present in
(1) Madhya Pradesh
(2) Maharashtra
(3) Rajasthan
(4) Uttaranchal
77. Force that acts against maximum population growth is
(1) biotic potential
(2) high natality
(3) exponential growth
(4) environmental resistance
78. Study the following about minor air pollutants:
Pollutant Source Effect
I. Tetraethyl lead Automobile exhaust Minimata disease
II. Methane Brick kilns Global warming
III. Benzopyrene Cigarette smoke Cancer
IV. Pollen grains Plants like Parthenium Cyanosis
Which of the above are correct?
(1) I and II
(2) I and III
(3) III and IV
(4) II and III
Study the following:
Drug Obtained From Used in treatment of
I. Vinblastin Vinca Cancer
II. Quinine Cinchona tree Malaria
III. Digitalin Foxglove plant Chronic heart trouble
IV. Morphine Poppy plant Hypertension
Which of the above are true?
(1). Only II and III
(2). Only I, II and III
(3). Only II, III and IV
(4). All are true
79. Study the following:
Pollutant Source Effect
I. Lead Pesticide industries Anaemia
II. Silver Photographic laboratory waste Arrhythmia
III. Cadmium Electroplating Industries Kidney necrosis
IV. Arsenic Pesticide industries Muscular atrophy
Which of the above are true?
(1) All except I
(2) All except II
(3) All except III
(4) All are true
Find the wrong match:
(1) Red Panda Ailurus ochraceus
(2) Kashmiri stag Cervus elephus hangalu
(3) Siberian crane Grus lceuogeranus
(4) Pigmy hog Sus scorfa
80. Find the incorrect statement.
(1) Methyl chloroform is an industrial chemical that acts as ozone depleting substance (ODS).
(2) Methyl mercury is an ODS that has comparatively a less damaging effect on the ozone in
the Stratosphere.
(3) Dimethyl mercury is a secondary pollutant formed by the action of anaerobic
microorganisms on mercury
(4) Trimethylamine oxide is stored by cartilaginous fishes in their blood to make their body fluids hypertonic.
Antihypertensive drug is obtained from
(1) poppy plant
(2) vinca
(3) foxglove plant
(4) sarpagandha
KEY
Saturday, January 26, 2008
Jr.Grand Test-1
41. Study of multicellular consumers is
(1) botany
(2) zoology
(3) mycology
(4) protistology
In Q.No.43,78,79 and 80. Sr.Students should answer the first question whereas Jr.Students should answer the second one
41. Study of multicellular consumers is
(1) botany
(2) zoology
(3) mycology
(4) protistology
42. Which of the following taxa may end with the suffix ‘–oidea’?
A. Super Family
B. Class
C. Sub-order
(1) A only
(2) A and C only
(3) B and A only
(4) A, B and C
43. Self-replicating extra-chromosomal DNA rings of bacteria are called
(1) phasmids
(2) plasmids
(3) plastids
(4) Amphids
Which of the following is true about Pielou’s evenness index?
(1) E= H max/ H'
(2) E=H’ / H max
(3) E= H' x H max
(4) H max = H’ x E
44. Consider the following statements about flagella:
I. Two central singlets microtubules are enclosed by membranous inner sheath.
II.The peripheral doublets are surrounded by a fibrous outer
PRotoplasmic sheath.
III. Axoneme has a total of 20 microtubules of which only 18 microtubules bear
dynein arms
IV. All microtubules of basal granule extend into the axoneme of the flagellum.
How many of the above statements are true?
(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 3
45.Fastest protozoans are
(1) rhizopods
(2) sporozoans
(3) ciliates
(4) mastigophores
46. Which of the following statements about binary fission is false?
(1) In Paramecium, macronucleus and micronucleus divide simultaneously.
(2) In Euglena, contractile vacuole, stigma and paraflagellar body disappear
before binary fission and newly appear in the daughter individuals.
(3) In Paramecium, contractile vacuoles and cytopharynx of parent do not
disappear during binary fission.
(4) In Paramecium and Euglena, each daughter individual develops one new
contractile vacuole.
47. Correct one about conjugation in Vorticella monilata is
(1) Male and female conjugants are motile.
(2) In postzygotic nuclear divisions, one is meiotic and the rest are mitotic.
(3) During formation of conjugants, micronucleus divides by mitosis while
macronucleus divides by meiosis.
(4) All the nuclear divisions in postconjugation fissions are mitotic.
48. Assertion(A) : Adamsia can be cut into two antimeres along only two
planes, and the antimeres on either side of one plane are
different from the antimeres on either side of the other plane
Reason (R) : Most body parts of Adamsia are arranged radially but some parts
are arranged in pairs.
(1) Both 'A' and 'R' are true and 'R' is the correct explanation of 'A'
(2) Both 'A' and 'R' are true but 'R' is not correct explanation of 'A'
(3) 'A' is true but 'R' is false
(4) 'A' is false but 'R' is true
49. Consider the following statements about cytoskeleton in animal cells:
I. Structures that help in maintaining the position of the organelles are
composed of different kinds of proteins.
II. Structures responsible for intracellular movements like cyclosis, and
transport of substances within the cell are hollow unbranched tubes
composed of tubulin.
III. Structures that occur on the periphery of the cell providing support and
generate the movement of the cell are composed of actin.
IV. Spindle fibres of mitotic spindle are constituted by the largest components
of cytoskeleton.
Which of the above statements are true?
(1) All except I
(2) All except II
(3) All except III
(4) All are true
50. Which of the following are associated with femur?
A. Cancellous Bone
B. Compact Bone
C. Reticular Tissue
D. Adipose Tissue
E. Hyaline cartilage
F. Dense Fibrous Tissue
(1) A, C, E and F Only
(2) B, D, E and F Only
(3) A, B, C, D and E only
(4) A, B, C, D, E and F
51. Nasal septum is made up of
(1) Fibrous cartilage
(2) Hyaline cartilage
(3) Elastic cartilage
(4) Calcified cartilage
52. Antigen-antibody complexes are engulfed by WBC that
(1) secrete fibrinolysin
(2) are functionally similar to mast cells
(3) produce plasma cells
(4) act as internal scavengers
53. Arrange the following structures in a skeletal muscle from outer to inner:
A. Endomysium
B. Sarcolemma
C. Myofibril
D. Myofilament
E. Fasciculus
F. Perimysium
G. Epimysium
(1) G F E A B CD
(2) G F E B A C D
(3) G F D C B AE
(4) G F E D B C A
54.Study the following about Pheretima posthuma:
Cells-Character-Function
I. Yellow cells-Vesicular bulging-Synthesis of silicates
II. Mucocytes-Elongated-Mucus secretion
III. Circular Cells-Characteristic marking-Excretion
IV. Phagocytes-Membranous folds-Protection
Which of the above are true?
(1) Only II and IV
(2) Only I, II and IV
(3) Only II, III and IV
(4) All are true
55. Arrange the following numbers related to Pheretima posthuma in an ascending
order:
A. Number of transverse septa without septal nephridia.
B. Number of non-perforate septa.
C. Number of perforate septa without septal nephridia.
D. Number of conical septa.
E. Number of septa without septal nephridia.
F. Number of thick and muscular conical septa.
G. Number of non-perforate transverse septa.
(1) C less than G less than A less than F less than D less than B less than E
(2) C less than A less than G less than F less than D less than B less than E
(3) C less than G less than A less than F less than D less than B = E
(4) C less than G less than F less than A less than D less than B less than E
56. Consider the following statements about Pheretima posthuma:
I. Dorsal blood vessel shows posteroanterior peristaltic movement.
II. Throughout its length, ventral blood vessel distributes blood to
alimentary canal.
III. In the first 13 segments, dorsal vessel supplies blood to the anterior part
of the gut only.
IV. The ventral blood vessel receives blood from the dorsal blood vessel
through the lateral hearts and from dorsal blood vessel and supraintestinal
blood vessel through the lateral oesophageal vessels.
Which of the above statements are true?
(1) Only I is true
(2) Only I and III are true
(3) Only I, II and III are true
(4) None is true
57. In Pheretima, highest number of nephridia are present in
(1) 14th segment
(2) 15th segment
(3) 16th segment
(4) 17th segment
58. In earthworm, gastrulation occurs due to the invagination of
(1) macromeres in animal hemisphere
(2) micromeres in animal hemisphere
(3) macromeres in vegetal hemisphere
(4) micromeres in vegetal hemisphere
59. Find the correct match.
(1) Postmentum - Stipes
(2) Glossa - Galea
(3) Mandible - Coxa
(4) Prementum - Cardo
60. Assertion (A) : Water cannot leave but CO2 can leave the body of cockroach
through exoskeleton.
Reason (R) : Epicuticle is impervious to water but allows the diffusion of
CO2
(1) Both 'A' and 'R' are true and 'R' is the correct explanation of 'A'
(2) Both 'A' and 'R' are true but 'R' is not correct explanation of 'A'
(3) 'A' is true but 'R' is false
(4) 'A' is false but 'R' is true
61. Photoreceptor cells in ommatidium of cockroach are
(1) lenticular cells
(2) vitrillae
(3) retinular cells
(4) tormogen cells
62. Buzzing sound of houseflies is due to
(1) halters
(2) tegmina
(3) hemi-elytra
(4) aristae
63. If an insect is awarded one point for each wing and half point for each reduced
wing and a bonus point for each wing useful for flight, what is the correct
order of points you will award to the following insects?
A. Periplaneta
B. Cimex
C. Pediculus
D. male Tachardia
E. Musca
(1) Cless thanBless thanDless thanE=A
(2) Cless thanB=Dless thanEless thanA
(3) Cless thanBless thanDless thanEless thanA
(4) C= D less than B less thanEless thanA
64. Term symbiosis was coined by
(1) de Candolle
(2) de Vries
(3) de Duve
(4) de Bary
65. Consider the following statements about Plasmodium vivax:
I. Micrometacryptozoites infect erythrocytes but not hepatocytes.
II.Macrometacryptozoites infect hepatocytes but not erythrocytes.
III. Sporozoites infect hepatocytes but not erythrocytes.
IV. Cryptomerozoites infect both hepatocytes and erythrocytes.
Which of the above are true?
(1) All except I
(2) All except II
(3) All except III
(4) All are true.
66. In Taenia solium, ootype is connected to isthmus through
(1) vagina
(2) vitelline duct
(3) oviduct
(4) vas deferens
67. Consider the following statements about Wuchereria bancrofti:
I. It is creamy white and filiform
II. Male and female worms are found coiled with each other in lymph vessels.
III. Anterior end is blunt and posterior end is pointed.
IV. Anterior part of pharynx is glandular and posterior part is muscular.
Which of the above are true?
(1) All except II
(2) All except III
(3) All except IV
(4) All are true.
68. Polymorphic cnidarians are characterised by
(1) endodermal cnidocytes
(2) non-cellular mesoglea
(3) calcareous exoskeleton
(4) gastric filaments
69. In ‘Sand worm’ correct path of passage of gametes is
(1) Testis Spermiducal funnel Vasa deferentia Exterior
(2) Ovary Coelom Oviduct Exterior
(3) Testis Testis sac Coelom Vasa deferentia Exterior
(4) OvaryCoelomNephridia Exterior
70. Set of tracheate arthropods is
(1) Musca, Spirostreptus, Heterometrus
(2) Pediculus, Scutigera, Lepsima
(3) Scolopendra, Sarcoptes, Sacculina
(4) Astacus, Periplaneta, Julus
71. Blood vascular system of the largest invertebrate is
(1) open type, with heart
(2) closed type, with heart
(3) open type, without heart
(4) closed type, without heart
72. Study the following
Echinoderm-Character-Class
I. Neometra-Closed ambulacral grooves-Crinoidea
II. Synapta-Spines absent-Holothuroidea
III. Gorgonocephalus-Branched arms-Ophiuroidea
IV. Echinodiscus-Two jawed pedicellariae-Echinoidea
The correct ones are
(1) II and III only
(2) I and III only
(3) III and IV only
(4) I and II only
73. In a lake, pressure in water at the lower limit of euphotic zone is
(1) 3042 millibars
(2) 5070 millibars
(3) 8112 millibars
(4) 9126 millibars
74. Which of the following relies on the surface tension of water for locomotion?
(1) Dytiscus
(2) Dineutes
(3) Daphnia
(4) Dugesia
75. A tropical fox, when compared to its counterpart in temperate region is expected to have
(1) smaller body, larger extremities, more pigmentation and less number of
vertebrae.
(2) smaller body, larger extremities, more pigmentation and same number of
vertebrae.
(3) smaller body, smaller extremities, more pigmentation and less number of
vertebrae.
(4) larger body, larger extremities, more pigmentation and same number of
vertebrae.
76. Assertion (A): In a lake, oxygen content is low in profundal zone
Reason (R): Producers are absent in profundal zone
(1) Both 'A' and 'R' are true and 'R' is the correct explanation of 'A'
(2) Both 'A' and 'R' are true but 'R' is not correct explanation of 'A'
(3) 'A' is true but 'R' is false
(4) 'A' is false but 'R' is true
77. Assertion (A) : In exponential growth curves, growth of population is said to
be density independent.
Reason (R) : Regulation of growth rate is not dependent on population
density until the final crash
(1) Both 'A' and 'R' are true and 'R' is the correct explanation of 'A'
(2) Both 'A' and 'R' are true but 'R' is not correct explanation of 'A'
(3) 'A' is true but 'R' is false
(4) 'A' is false but 'R' is true
78. Match the following and choose the correct combination:
Year Event
A) 1992 (1) Vienna Convention
B) 1997 (2) Earth Summit
C) 1985 (3) Montreal Protocol
D) 1987 (4) Kyoto Protocol
E) 1984 (5) Bhopal gas tragedy
(1) A-2; B-3; C-4; D-1; E-5
(2) A-3; B-2; C-4; D-5; E-1
(3) A-2; B-4; C-1; D-5; E-3
(4) A-2; B-4; C-1; D-3; E-5
Match the following and choose the correct combination:
List – I List - II
A. Ecosphere (1) Biogeographic division of the earth's surface based on the
historic and evolutionary distribution patterns of plants and
animals.
B. Ecoregion (2) The total life supporting environment extending few metres
above and few metres below the surface of the earth.
C. Ecozone (3) An area that is uniform in environmental conditions and in
its distribution of animal and plant life.
D. Biotope (4) An area constituting a natural ecological community with
characteristic flora, fauna, and environmental conditions
and bounded by natural borders.
(1) A-2; B-1; C-4; D-5
(2) A-2; B-1; C-3; D-5
(3) A-2; B-1; C-5; D-4
(4) A-2; B-4; C-1; D-3
79. Action of acetylcholinesterase at synaptic junctions, can be inhibited by the pollutant
(1) Nickel
(2) Malathion
(3) Aldrin
(4) Aldicarb
Study the following:
Drug - Obtained From - Used in treatment of
I. Vinca - Vinblastin - Cancer
II. Quinine - Cinchona tree - Malaria
III. Digitalin- Foxglove plant- Chronic heart trouble
IV. Morphine - Poppy plant - Hypertension
Which of the above are true?
(1) Only I, II and III
(2) Only II and III
(3) Only II, III and IV
(4) All are true
80. Find out the wrong statement.
(1) National animal of India is protected in Corbett National Park.
(2) National animal of China is the mascot of WWF.
(3) National animal of country in which Chernobyl accident occurred is white
bear.
(4) National animal of the country in which Long Island accident occurred is
panda.
Which of the following became susceptible for extinction due to small population
size and low reproductive rate?
(1) blue whale and whooping crane
(2) woodland caribou and island species
(3) bald eagle and Bengal tiger
(4) blue whale and giant panda
KEY
(1) botany
(2) zoology
(3) mycology
(4) protistology
In Q.No.43,78,79 and 80. Sr.Students should answer the first question whereas Jr.Students should answer the second one
41. Study of multicellular consumers is
(1) botany
(2) zoology
(3) mycology
(4) protistology
42. Which of the following taxa may end with the suffix ‘–oidea’?
A. Super Family
B. Class
C. Sub-order
(1) A only
(2) A and C only
(3) B and A only
(4) A, B and C
43. Self-replicating extra-chromosomal DNA rings of bacteria are called
(1) phasmids
(2) plasmids
(3) plastids
(4) Amphids
Which of the following is true about Pielou’s evenness index?
(1) E= H max/ H'
(2) E=H’ / H max
(3) E= H' x H max
(4) H max = H’ x E
44. Consider the following statements about flagella:
I. Two central singlets microtubules are enclosed by membranous inner sheath.
II.The peripheral doublets are surrounded by a fibrous outer
PRotoplasmic sheath.
III. Axoneme has a total of 20 microtubules of which only 18 microtubules bear
dynein arms
IV. All microtubules of basal granule extend into the axoneme of the flagellum.
How many of the above statements are true?
(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 3
45.Fastest protozoans are
(1) rhizopods
(2) sporozoans
(3) ciliates
(4) mastigophores
46. Which of the following statements about binary fission is false?
(1) In Paramecium, macronucleus and micronucleus divide simultaneously.
(2) In Euglena, contractile vacuole, stigma and paraflagellar body disappear
before binary fission and newly appear in the daughter individuals.
(3) In Paramecium, contractile vacuoles and cytopharynx of parent do not
disappear during binary fission.
(4) In Paramecium and Euglena, each daughter individual develops one new
contractile vacuole.
47. Correct one about conjugation in Vorticella monilata is
(1) Male and female conjugants are motile.
(2) In postzygotic nuclear divisions, one is meiotic and the rest are mitotic.
(3) During formation of conjugants, micronucleus divides by mitosis while
macronucleus divides by meiosis.
(4) All the nuclear divisions in postconjugation fissions are mitotic.
48. Assertion(A) : Adamsia can be cut into two antimeres along only two
planes, and the antimeres on either side of one plane are
different from the antimeres on either side of the other plane
Reason (R) : Most body parts of Adamsia are arranged radially but some parts
are arranged in pairs.
(1) Both 'A' and 'R' are true and 'R' is the correct explanation of 'A'
(2) Both 'A' and 'R' are true but 'R' is not correct explanation of 'A'
(3) 'A' is true but 'R' is false
(4) 'A' is false but 'R' is true
49. Consider the following statements about cytoskeleton in animal cells:
I. Structures that help in maintaining the position of the organelles are
composed of different kinds of proteins.
II. Structures responsible for intracellular movements like cyclosis, and
transport of substances within the cell are hollow unbranched tubes
composed of tubulin.
III. Structures that occur on the periphery of the cell providing support and
generate the movement of the cell are composed of actin.
IV. Spindle fibres of mitotic spindle are constituted by the largest components
of cytoskeleton.
Which of the above statements are true?
(1) All except I
(2) All except II
(3) All except III
(4) All are true
50. Which of the following are associated with femur?
A. Cancellous Bone
B. Compact Bone
C. Reticular Tissue
D. Adipose Tissue
E. Hyaline cartilage
F. Dense Fibrous Tissue
(1) A, C, E and F Only
(2) B, D, E and F Only
(3) A, B, C, D and E only
(4) A, B, C, D, E and F
51. Nasal septum is made up of
(1) Fibrous cartilage
(2) Hyaline cartilage
(3) Elastic cartilage
(4) Calcified cartilage
52. Antigen-antibody complexes are engulfed by WBC that
(1) secrete fibrinolysin
(2) are functionally similar to mast cells
(3) produce plasma cells
(4) act as internal scavengers
53. Arrange the following structures in a skeletal muscle from outer to inner:
A. Endomysium
B. Sarcolemma
C. Myofibril
D. Myofilament
E. Fasciculus
F. Perimysium
G. Epimysium
(1) G F E A B CD
(2) G F E B A C D
(3) G F D C B AE
(4) G F E D B C A
54.Study the following about Pheretima posthuma:
Cells-Character-Function
I. Yellow cells-Vesicular bulging-Synthesis of silicates
II. Mucocytes-Elongated-Mucus secretion
III. Circular Cells-Characteristic marking-Excretion
IV. Phagocytes-Membranous folds-Protection
Which of the above are true?
(1) Only II and IV
(2) Only I, II and IV
(3) Only II, III and IV
(4) All are true
55. Arrange the following numbers related to Pheretima posthuma in an ascending
order:
A. Number of transverse septa without septal nephridia.
B. Number of non-perforate septa.
C. Number of perforate septa without septal nephridia.
D. Number of conical septa.
E. Number of septa without septal nephridia.
F. Number of thick and muscular conical septa.
G. Number of non-perforate transverse septa.
(1) C less than G less than A less than F less than D less than B less than E
(2) C less than A less than G less than F less than D less than B less than E
(3) C less than G less than A less than F less than D less than B = E
(4) C less than G less than F less than A less than D less than B less than E
56. Consider the following statements about Pheretima posthuma:
I. Dorsal blood vessel shows posteroanterior peristaltic movement.
II. Throughout its length, ventral blood vessel distributes blood to
alimentary canal.
III. In the first 13 segments, dorsal vessel supplies blood to the anterior part
of the gut only.
IV. The ventral blood vessel receives blood from the dorsal blood vessel
through the lateral hearts and from dorsal blood vessel and supraintestinal
blood vessel through the lateral oesophageal vessels.
Which of the above statements are true?
(1) Only I is true
(2) Only I and III are true
(3) Only I, II and III are true
(4) None is true
57. In Pheretima, highest number of nephridia are present in
(1) 14th segment
(2) 15th segment
(3) 16th segment
(4) 17th segment
58. In earthworm, gastrulation occurs due to the invagination of
(1) macromeres in animal hemisphere
(2) micromeres in animal hemisphere
(3) macromeres in vegetal hemisphere
(4) micromeres in vegetal hemisphere
59. Find the correct match.
(1) Postmentum - Stipes
(2) Glossa - Galea
(3) Mandible - Coxa
(4) Prementum - Cardo
60. Assertion (A) : Water cannot leave but CO2 can leave the body of cockroach
through exoskeleton.
Reason (R) : Epicuticle is impervious to water but allows the diffusion of
CO2
(1) Both 'A' and 'R' are true and 'R' is the correct explanation of 'A'
(2) Both 'A' and 'R' are true but 'R' is not correct explanation of 'A'
(3) 'A' is true but 'R' is false
(4) 'A' is false but 'R' is true
61. Photoreceptor cells in ommatidium of cockroach are
(1) lenticular cells
(2) vitrillae
(3) retinular cells
(4) tormogen cells
62. Buzzing sound of houseflies is due to
(1) halters
(2) tegmina
(3) hemi-elytra
(4) aristae
63. If an insect is awarded one point for each wing and half point for each reduced
wing and a bonus point for each wing useful for flight, what is the correct
order of points you will award to the following insects?
A. Periplaneta
B. Cimex
C. Pediculus
D. male Tachardia
E. Musca
(1) Cless thanBless thanDless thanE=A
(2) Cless thanB=Dless thanEless thanA
(3) Cless thanBless thanDless thanEless thanA
(4) C= D less than B less thanEless thanA
64. Term symbiosis was coined by
(1) de Candolle
(2) de Vries
(3) de Duve
(4) de Bary
65. Consider the following statements about Plasmodium vivax:
I. Micrometacryptozoites infect erythrocytes but not hepatocytes.
II.Macrometacryptozoites infect hepatocytes but not erythrocytes.
III. Sporozoites infect hepatocytes but not erythrocytes.
IV. Cryptomerozoites infect both hepatocytes and erythrocytes.
Which of the above are true?
(1) All except I
(2) All except II
(3) All except III
(4) All are true.
66. In Taenia solium, ootype is connected to isthmus through
(1) vagina
(2) vitelline duct
(3) oviduct
(4) vas deferens
67. Consider the following statements about Wuchereria bancrofti:
I. It is creamy white and filiform
II. Male and female worms are found coiled with each other in lymph vessels.
III. Anterior end is blunt and posterior end is pointed.
IV. Anterior part of pharynx is glandular and posterior part is muscular.
Which of the above are true?
(1) All except II
(2) All except III
(3) All except IV
(4) All are true.
68. Polymorphic cnidarians are characterised by
(1) endodermal cnidocytes
(2) non-cellular mesoglea
(3) calcareous exoskeleton
(4) gastric filaments
69. In ‘Sand worm’ correct path of passage of gametes is
(1) Testis Spermiducal funnel Vasa deferentia Exterior
(2) Ovary Coelom Oviduct Exterior
(3) Testis Testis sac Coelom Vasa deferentia Exterior
(4) OvaryCoelomNephridia Exterior
70. Set of tracheate arthropods is
(1) Musca, Spirostreptus, Heterometrus
(2) Pediculus, Scutigera, Lepsima
(3) Scolopendra, Sarcoptes, Sacculina
(4) Astacus, Periplaneta, Julus
71. Blood vascular system of the largest invertebrate is
(1) open type, with heart
(2) closed type, with heart
(3) open type, without heart
(4) closed type, without heart
72. Study the following
Echinoderm-Character-Class
I. Neometra-Closed ambulacral grooves-Crinoidea
II. Synapta-Spines absent-Holothuroidea
III. Gorgonocephalus-Branched arms-Ophiuroidea
IV. Echinodiscus-Two jawed pedicellariae-Echinoidea
The correct ones are
(1) II and III only
(2) I and III only
(3) III and IV only
(4) I and II only
73. In a lake, pressure in water at the lower limit of euphotic zone is
(1) 3042 millibars
(2) 5070 millibars
(3) 8112 millibars
(4) 9126 millibars
74. Which of the following relies on the surface tension of water for locomotion?
(1) Dytiscus
(2) Dineutes
(3) Daphnia
(4) Dugesia
75. A tropical fox, when compared to its counterpart in temperate region is expected to have
(1) smaller body, larger extremities, more pigmentation and less number of
vertebrae.
(2) smaller body, larger extremities, more pigmentation and same number of
vertebrae.
(3) smaller body, smaller extremities, more pigmentation and less number of
vertebrae.
(4) larger body, larger extremities, more pigmentation and same number of
vertebrae.
76. Assertion (A): In a lake, oxygen content is low in profundal zone
Reason (R): Producers are absent in profundal zone
(1) Both 'A' and 'R' are true and 'R' is the correct explanation of 'A'
(2) Both 'A' and 'R' are true but 'R' is not correct explanation of 'A'
(3) 'A' is true but 'R' is false
(4) 'A' is false but 'R' is true
77. Assertion (A) : In exponential growth curves, growth of population is said to
be density independent.
Reason (R) : Regulation of growth rate is not dependent on population
density until the final crash
(1) Both 'A' and 'R' are true and 'R' is the correct explanation of 'A'
(2) Both 'A' and 'R' are true but 'R' is not correct explanation of 'A'
(3) 'A' is true but 'R' is false
(4) 'A' is false but 'R' is true
78. Match the following and choose the correct combination:
Year Event
A) 1992 (1) Vienna Convention
B) 1997 (2) Earth Summit
C) 1985 (3) Montreal Protocol
D) 1987 (4) Kyoto Protocol
E) 1984 (5) Bhopal gas tragedy
(1) A-2; B-3; C-4; D-1; E-5
(2) A-3; B-2; C-4; D-5; E-1
(3) A-2; B-4; C-1; D-5; E-3
(4) A-2; B-4; C-1; D-3; E-5
Match the following and choose the correct combination:
List – I List - II
A. Ecosphere (1) Biogeographic division of the earth's surface based on the
historic and evolutionary distribution patterns of plants and
animals.
B. Ecoregion (2) The total life supporting environment extending few metres
above and few metres below the surface of the earth.
C. Ecozone (3) An area that is uniform in environmental conditions and in
its distribution of animal and plant life.
D. Biotope (4) An area constituting a natural ecological community with
characteristic flora, fauna, and environmental conditions
and bounded by natural borders.
(1) A-2; B-1; C-4; D-5
(2) A-2; B-1; C-3; D-5
(3) A-2; B-1; C-5; D-4
(4) A-2; B-4; C-1; D-3
79. Action of acetylcholinesterase at synaptic junctions, can be inhibited by the pollutant
(1) Nickel
(2) Malathion
(3) Aldrin
(4) Aldicarb
Study the following:
Drug - Obtained From - Used in treatment of
I. Vinca - Vinblastin - Cancer
II. Quinine - Cinchona tree - Malaria
III. Digitalin- Foxglove plant- Chronic heart trouble
IV. Morphine - Poppy plant - Hypertension
Which of the above are true?
(1) Only I, II and III
(2) Only II and III
(3) Only II, III and IV
(4) All are true
80. Find out the wrong statement.
(1) National animal of India is protected in Corbett National Park.
(2) National animal of China is the mascot of WWF.
(3) National animal of country in which Chernobyl accident occurred is white
bear.
(4) National animal of the country in which Long Island accident occurred is
panda.
Which of the following became susceptible for extinction due to small population
size and low reproductive rate?
(1) blue whale and whooping crane
(2) woodland caribou and island species
(3) bald eagle and Bengal tiger
(4) blue whale and giant panda
KEY
Jr.Grand Test-1 Key
41) 2 42) 4 43) 2 44) 1 45) 3 46) 2 47) 4 48) 1 49) 4 50) 1
51) 2 52) 1 53) 1 54) 1 55) 1 56) 1 57) 3 58) 3 59) 3 60) 1
61) 3 62) 1 63) 3 64) 4 65) 4 66) 3 67) 3 68) 2 69) 2 70) 2
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Friday, January 25, 2008
Key for Test on Pollution and Wildlife Conservation
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71) 2 72) 3 73) 2 74) 1 75) 3 76) 3 77) 4 78) 2 79) 4 80) 2
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121) 3 122) 4 123) 3 124) 1 125) 3 126) 4 127) 1 128) 2
Creatine Kinase
The major protein of the M line is creatine kinase. Creatine kinase catalyzes the transfer of a phosphate group from phosphocreatine (a storage form of high-energy phosphate groups) to adenosine diphosphate (ADP), thus supplying adenosine triphosphate (ATP) for muscle contraction.creatine kinase
Wednesday, January 23, 2008
Greenhouse Effect
An Excellent video about green house effect including clips from the movie "The Day After Tomorrow".
Test On Pollution and Wildlife Conservation
1. A renewable source of energy in the following is
1. solar energy 2. coal 3. electricity 4. fossil fuels
2. Pollutant responsible for allergic dermatitis and respiratory disorders is
1. Nickel 2. Chromium 3. Mercury 4. Lead
1. A renewable source of energy in the following is
1. solar energy 2. coal 3. electricity 4. fossil fuels
2. Pollutant responsible for allergic dermatitis and respiratory disorders is
1. Nickel 2. Chromium 3. Mercury 4. Lead
3. Main source of atmospheric N2O is
1. protein synthesis by plants 2. respiration of animals
3. photosynthesis of plants 4. decomposition of proteins by soil micorbes
4. Which of the following is a greeen house gas?
1. NO2 2. HCFC 3. SF6 4. MIC
5. Corrosion of metals is caused by
1. SO2 and NO2 2. photochemical smog and SO2
3. SO2 and ozone 4. london smog and NO2
6. Arrange the following in the ascending order of their concentration in atomsophere:
A. Chief air pollutant B.Major green house gas C.Chief gas pollutant in automobile exhaust D.Secondary pollutant that causes global warming
1. C D B A 2. C D A B 3. D C A B 4. C A D B
7. Pollution that does not leave any residue in the environment is
1. noise pollution 2. aerosols 3. radioactive pollution 4. smog
8. Gas responsible for green house effect is
1. carbon dioxide 2. carbon monoxide 3. sulphur dioxide 4. ozone
9. Mutations and blood cancer are caused by
1. pesticides 2. sewage 3. radioactive substances 4. Fluorine
10. Recently extinct animal in India is
1. Acinonyx 2. Leopard 3. Dodo 4. Gharial
11. Soil erosion results in
1. qualitative positive soil pollution 2. qualitative negative soil pollution
3. quantitative positive soil pollution 4. quantitative negative soil pollution
12. Pollutants that affect nervous system are
1. Aldrin and Nickel 2. Mercury and Carboryl
3. Aldicarb and Chromium 4. Malathion and Chromium
13. Gas responsible for Bhopal tragedy is
1. methyl iso cyanite 2. methyl iso cyanide 3. methyl iso cyanate 4. chlorofluorocarbons
14. Pesticides that are least toxic to man and close to nature are
1. organochlorines 2. carbomates 3. organophosphates 4. synthetic pyrethroids
15. Synthetic fertilizer pollution can be minimised by
1. Nalgonda technique 2. trickling filter method 3. mud ball technique
4. activated sludge processes
16. The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act was enacted in the year
1. 1968 2. 1974 3. 1977 4. 1981
17. Ranganthittoo Bird Sanctuary is present in
1. Uttar Pradesh 2. Orissa 3. Andhra Pradesh 4. Karnataka
18. Study the following about minor air pollutants:
Pollutant Source Effect
I. Tetraethyl lead Automobile exhaust Minamata disease
II. Methane Brick kilns Global warming
III. Benzopyrene Cigarette smoke Cancer
IV. Pollen grains Plants like Parthenium Cyanosis
Which of the above are correct?
1. I and II 2. II and III 3. III and IV 4. I and III
19. Disease prevalent in workers of spinning and ginning mills is
1. silicosis 2. asbestosis 3. myasis 4. byssinosis
20. Concentration of DDT is highest in
1. primary consumers 2. producers 3. secondary consumers 4. climax carnivores
21. Human activities are not at all permitted in
1. national park 2. buffer zone I of biosphere reserve
3. sanctuary 4. manipulation zone of biosphere reserve
22. Pollutant responsible for hypertension, low I.Q. in children is
1. Arsenic 2. Lead 3. Mercury 4. Tin
23. Releasing sewage into ponds leads to
1. incineration 2. gelation 3. detoxification 4. eutrophication
24. Action of the enzyme acetyl cholinesterase (AchE) at synaptic junctions is inhibited by
1. BHC 2. parathion 3. carboryl 4. aldrin
25. World Conservation Strategy was planned by
1. IUCN and ICZA 2. WWF and IBW 3. IUCN and WWF 4. IUCN and ICZ
26. Wildlife Protection Act was enacted in the year
1. 1962 2. 1972 3. 1982 4. 1986
27. Secondary pollutant among the following is
1. PAN 2. MIC 3. CFC 4. CO
28. Pesticides that inhibit the activity of the enzyme acetyl cholinesterase (AchE) are
1. carbomates 2. organophosphates 3. organochlorines 4. synthetic pyrethroids
29. National animal of Russia is
1. panda 2. bald eagle 3. white bear 4. kangaroo
30. Which of the following is a greeen house gas?
1. methane 2. bromine 3. chlorine 4. ozone
31. Wild populations, traditional life styles of tribals and varied domesticated plant and animal genetic resources are protected in
1. botanical gardens 2. bird sanctuaries 3. biosphere reserves 4. national parks
32. Gir National Park is located in
1. Orissa 2. Gujarat 3. Assam 4. Bihar
33. White spots appear on leaves of plants due to
1. CO2 2. N2O 3. CO 4. SO2
34. Species that are in the immediate danger of extinction are termed
1. vulnerable species 2. endangered species 3. rare species 4. sibling species
35. Water pollutant that causes dental and skeletal disorders in man is
1. Chlorine 2. Lead 3. Cadmium 4. Fluorine
36. Pollutant responsible for Minamata disease is
1. Lead 2. Mercury 3. Arsenic 4. Manganese
37. Wildlife Protection Act was enacted in the year
1. 1948 2. 1972 3. 1981 4. 1986
38. Pollutant useful for the synthesis of 5 formyl tetra hydrofolic acid in plants is
1. CO 2. SO2 3. PAN 4. CFC
39. Law enacted after Bhopal tragedy is
1. The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act
2. The Water (Prevention and Control ofPollution) Cess Act
3. Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act 4. Environmental (Protection) Act
40. Assertion (A) : Nitrogen oxides play an important role in the formation of photochemical smog.
Reason (R) : Nitrogen oxides released into the atmosphere are converted into HNO3
1. Both 'A' and 'R' are true and 'R' is the correct explanation of 'A'
2. Both 'A' and 'R' are true but 'R' is not correct explanation of 'A'
3. 'A' is true but 'R' is false 4. 'A' is false but 'R' is true
41. Pollutant that causes hypoxia in man is
1. sulphur dioxide 2. carbon monoxide 3. nitrous oxide 4. ozone
42. Pollutant that slows down ciliary movement in man is
1. CO 2. CO2 3. SO2 4. N2O
43. All the threatened species are listed in the Red Data Books published by
1. ICZN 2. IUCN 3. WWF 4. IBW
44. Pesticides that destroy female sex hormones of birds are
1. carbomates 2. organophosphates 3. organochlorines 4. synthetic pyrethroids
45. Largest sink for largest major air pollutant is
1. ocean 2. plants 3. river 4. soil
46. Solid or liquid particles in air having a diameter of less than 1 are termed
1. dust 2. smog 3. mist 4. aerosols
47. Pollutants responsible for formation of PAN are
1. carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide 2. sulphur dioxide and nitrogen oxides
3. chlorofluorocarbons 4. hydrocarbons and nitrogen oxides
48. Which of the following have same residence time?
1. NO and NO2 2. SO2 and NO2 3. NO2 and CO 4. NO and SO2
49. Metal pollutant that impairs maturation of RBC is
1. Mercury 2. Arsenic 3. Cadmium 4. Lead
50. Gas mainly responsible for the decay of Taj Mahal is
1. CO2 2. CO 3. SO2 4. O3
51. The main aim of Montreal protocol is
1. protection of ozone layer 2. reducing the release of green house gases
3. banning the use of pesticides 4. reducing radioactive pollution
52. Cancer is caused by
1. Arsenic and Chromium 2. Arsenic and Cadmium
3. Lead and Chromium 4. CO and Benzopyrene
53. In a food chain, pesticides undergo
1. biodegradation 2. biomagnification 3. biosynthesis 4. bioluminescence
54. Kanha National Park is present in
1. Maharashtra 2. Madhya Pradesh 3. Rajasthan 4. Uttaranchal
55. pH of acid rains is
1. 3.0 to 6.0 2. 6.0 to 7.0 3. 1.5 to 2.0 4. 7.2 to 7.6
56. Metal pollutant that causes muscular atrophy and cancer is
1. Lead 2. Cadmium 3. Nickel 4. Arsenic
57. Stone leprosy is caused by
1. carbon dioxide 2. sulphur dioxide 3. nitrogen dioxide 4. carbon monoxide
58. The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Cess Act was enacted in the year
1. 1986 2. 1974 3. 1977 4. 1981
59. In water bodies, sewage pollution causes
1. increase in DO and decrease in BOD 2. increase in DO and BOD
3. decrease in DO and increase in BOD 4. decrease in DO and BOD
60. The main aim of Montreal protocol is to regulate the production of
1. chlorofluorocarbons and halocarbons 2. hydrochlorofluorocarbons and methylbromide
3. chlorofluorocarbons and hydrochlorofluorocarbons 4. carbon dioxide and nitrous oxide
61. Secondary pollutant among the following is
1. chlorofluorocarbons 2. sulphuric acid 3. nitrous oxide 4. aerosols
62. Water pollutants that cause eutrophication are
1. sewage and industrial effluents 2. pesticide pollutants and fertilizer pollutants
3. sewage and fertilizer pollutants 4. fertilizer pollutants and heavy metals
63. Gases responsible for acid rains are
1. carbon dioxide and sulphur dioxide 2. carbon dioxide and nitrogen dioxides
3. sulphur dioxide and nitrogen oxides 4. chlorofluorocarbons and halocarbons
64. Animal that has recently become extinct in India is
1. Dugong 2. Cheetah 3. Dodo 4. Tiger
65. Pollutant that causes lung and skin cancer and affects nervous system is
1. Cadmium 2. Arsenic 3. Chromium 4. Nickel
66. Cotton fibres present in the air cause lung fibrosis called
1. silicosis 2. black lung disease 3. siderosis 4. byssinosis
67. Consider the following statements about diemthyl mercury:
I. It is a secondary pollutant
II. It is formed from mercury by the activity of aerobic microorganisms
III. It is insoluble in water
Which of the above are true?
1. Only I is true 2. Only I and II are true 3. Only II is true 4. All are wrong
68. Pesticides that damage brain of man are
1. carbomates 2. synthetic pyrethroids 3. organophosphates 4. organochlorines
69. Main cause of depletion of vulnerable species is
1. overgrazing 2. introudction of exotic species
3. overhunting 4. parasitic diseases
70. In a biosphere reserve, limited human activity for research and education is permitted in
1. manipulation zone 2. core zone 3. buffer zone 4. all the three zones
71. Catalytic converters in automobiles convert
1. CO to CO2 and NO2 to N2O 2. CO2 to CO and NO2 to Nitrogen
3. CO to CO2 and NO2 to Nitrogen 4. CO to CO2 and SO2 to H2SO4
72. Thermal pollution of water can be prevented by using
1. sewage treatment plants 2. catalytic converters
3. cooling towers 4. electrostatic precipitators
73. Recalcitrant and highly toxic pesticides are
1. synthetic pyrethroids 2. organochlorines 3. organophosphates 4. carbomates
74. Kanha National Park is located in
1. Madhya Pradesh 2. Kerala 3. Uttar Pradesh 4. Karnataka
75. Stone leprosy is due to the formation of
1. Calcium Carbonate 2. Calcium Phosphate 3. Calcium Sulphate 4. Calcium Citrate
76. Match the following and choose the correct combination:
Cancer Pollutant
A. Blood cancer 1. Strontium-90
B. Lung cancer 2. UV rays
C. Skin cancer 3. Iodine-131
D. Bone cancer 4. Nickel
5. Chromium
1. A-3; B-4; C-2; D-1 2. A-1; B-5; C-2; D-3 3. A-3; B-5; C-2; D-1 4. A-3; B-2; C-5; D-1
77. Main aim of Montreal Protocol is to phase out the production of
1. green house gases 2. perfluorocarbons and Sulphur Hexafluoride
3. Hydrochlorofluorocarbonss and Methyl Bromide 4. Chlorofluorocarbonss and Halocarbons
78. Marble and limestone are severely affected by
1. carbon dioxide 2. sulphur dioxide 3. nitrogen dioxide 4. carbon monoxide
79. Pollutant that is increasing in atmosphere day by day due to deforestation is
1. sulphur dioxide 2. nitric oxide 3. aerosols 4. carbon dioxide
80. "Oil eating" bacteria is
1. Cryptosporidium parvum 2. Pseudomonas putida 3. Giardia intestinalis 4. Escherichia coli
81. The most serious threat to wildlife is
1. habitat destruction 2. introduction of exotic species
3. hunting 4. overexploitation
82. Envirnomental friendly automobile fuel is
1. coal 2. diesel 3. kerosene 4. gasohol
83. Bio-indicators of air pollution are
1. lichens 2. birds 3. corals 4. plants
84. Ozone is a pollutant when it is present in
1. high concentration in stratosphere 2. low concentration in stratosphere
3. high concentration in troposphere 4. low concentration in troposphere
85. Gas that protects organisms from UV radiation is
1. carbon dioxide 2. ozone 3. carbon monoxide 4. sulphur dioxide
86. Depletion of ozone layer is due to
1. carbon dioxide 2. chlorofluorocarbons 3. sulphur dioxide 4. cotton dust
87. Residence time of sulphur dioxide is
1. 4 years 2. 4 days 3. 3 days 4. 2-4 years
88. Study the following about heavy metal pollutants of water:
Pollutant Source Effect
I. Cadmium Electroplating industry Kidney necrosis
II. Silver Photographic laboratory Arrhythmia
III. Mercury Paper industry Minamata disease
IV. Lead Battery industry Anaemia
Which of the above are true?
1. Only I, II and III 2. Only I, III and IV 3. Only II, III and IV 4. All are true
89. Intensity of faintest audible sound is
1. 0 db 2. 1db 3. 30 db 4. 120 db
90. Which of the following is a phytotoxic pollutant?
1. carbon monoxide 2. carbon dioxide 3. sulphur dioxide 4. nitrous oxide
91. Match the following and choose the correct combination:
Metal Pollutant Effect
A. Cadmium 1. Paralysis
B. Mercury 2. Coma
C. Nickel 3. Impaired maturation of WBC
D. Lead 4. Dermatitis
5. Sterility
1. A-5; B-1; C-4; D-3 2. A-5; B-1; C-2; D-4 3. A-5; B-1; C-4; D-2 4. A-4; B-1; C-5; D-2
92. Pollutant that affects kidneys (kidney necrosis), liver, pancreas and spleen is
1. Mercury 2. Lead 3. Cadmium 4. Arsenic
93. Metal pollutant released into atmosphere mainly from exhaust smoke of petrol vehicles is
1. Lead 2. Mercury 3. Arsenic 4. Zinc
94. Indravathi Tigre reserve is present in
1. Andhra Pradesh 2. Uttaranchal 3. Chattisgarh 4. Rajasthan
95. Indian Board of Wildlife acts in collaboration with
1. IUCN 2. WWF 3. ICZN 4. WHO
96. Which of the following is correct with respect to sewage polluted water?
1. DO>BOD>COD 2. DO
97. Threshold limit of pain is
1. 100 db 2. 75 db 3. 140 db 4. 180 db
98. Match the following and choose the correct combination:
Metal Pollutant Effect
A. Cadmium 1. Paralysis
B. Mercury 2.Deformation of hair and nails
C. Nickel 3.Impaired maturation of RBC
D. Selenium 4.Cyanosis
5.Sterility
1. A-5; B-3; C-4; D-2 2. A-5; B-1; C-2; D-4 3. A-5; B-1; C-4; D-2 4. A-4; B-1; C-5; D-2
99. National animal of Russia belongs to the family
1. Felidae 2. Ursidae 3. Canidae 4. Didelphidae
100. Bird sanctuary present in the leading state in sericulture is
1. Bharatpur Bird Sanctuary 2. Kolleru Lake Bird Sanctuary
3. Rangannatitto Bird Sanctuary 4. Periyar Sanctuary
101. Cracks develop in rubber goods due to
1. sulphur dioxide 2. nitrous oxide 3. ozone 4. carbon dioxide
102. The main aim of Kyoto protocol is to reduce
1. depletion of ozone layer 2. global warming
3. damage to Taj Mahal 4. radioactive pollution
103. Eggs laid by birds have thin and brittle shells due to the effect of
1. carbamates 2. organophosphates 3. organochlorines 4. synthetic pyrethroids
104. Yellow spots appear on leaves due to high concentration of
1. areosols 2. carbon monoxide 3. ozone 4. carbon dioxide
105. Antidote for CO poisoning is
1. carbon dioxide 2. oxygen 3. nitric oxide 4. nitrous oxide
106. Which of the following is a rare species?
1. leopard 2. gharial 3. peacock 4. tiger
107. Pollutant that causes pulmonary oedema when it is present in high concentration is
1. CO 2. N2O 3. SO2 4. O3
108. Anticancer drugs are obtained from
1. Vinblastin 2. Sarpagandha 3. Vinca 4. Dodo
109. Recently extinct bird of Mauritius is
1. Cheetah 2. Archaeopteryx 3. Dodo 4. Kiwi
110. Particulate pollution from the industries can be prevented by using
1. cyclone collectors 2. catalytic converters 3. cooling towers 4. incinerators
111. Protection is given only to fauna in
1. national park 2. biosphere reserve 3. botanical garden 4. sanctuary
112. Paper loses mechanical strength and becomes brittle due to the effect of
1. carbon dioxide 2. sulphur dioxide 3. nitrogen dioxide 4. carbon monoxide
113. Bharatpur Bird Sanctuary is present in
1. Maharashtra 2. Uttar Pradesh 3. Rajasthan 4. Madhya Pradesh
114. Percentage of carbon dioxide in dry air is about
1. 78.09% 2. 0.93% 3. 20.94% 4. 0.032%
115. Chernobyl accident in Russia caused
1. radioactive pollution 2. thermal pollution 3. marine pollution 4. eutrophication
116. The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act was enacted in the year
1. 1968 2. 1974 3. 1977 4. 1981
117. Which of the following has least residence time?
1. SO2 2. NO 3. CO 4. NO2
118. Incinerators should be used for the disposal of
1. fertilizers 2. radioactive wastes 3. pesticides 4. hospital wastes
119. Bio-indicators of marine pollution are
1. lichens 2. turtles 3. corals 4. fishes
120. Disease prevalent in workers of quarries and glass industries is
1. byssinosis 2. silicosis 3. dermatitis 4. myiasis
121. Pollutant that obstructs Hill reaction in plants is
1. chlorofluorocarbons 2. carbon dioxide 3. photochemical smog 4. carbon monoxide
122. Gas that has more affinity for haemoglobin is
1. carbon dioxide 2. sulphur dioxide 3. oxygen 4. carbon monoxide
123. Eutrophication leads to
1. decrease in BOD 2. decrease in productivity of water
3. increase in BOD 4. increase in dissolved oxygen in water
124. Malathion is an example for
1. oranophosphates 2. organochlorines 3. carbomates 4. synthetic pyrethroids
125. Kaziranga Wildlife Sanctuary is present in
1. Gujarat 2. Uttar Pradesh 3. Assam 4. Bihar
126. Identify the Ozone Depleting Substance
1. nitrous oxide 2. sulphur hexaflouride 3. carbon dioxide 4. methyl bromide
127. If the following are arranged in ascending chronological order, which would be the third?
1. Montreal protocol 2. Bhopal tragedy 3. Earth summit 4. Environment (Protection) Act
128. Toxic gas released due to burning of PVC items is
1. MIC 2. dioxin 3. PAN 4. gasohol
1. solar energy 2. coal 3. electricity 4. fossil fuels
2. Pollutant responsible for allergic dermatitis and respiratory disorders is
1. Nickel 2. Chromium 3. Mercury 4. Lead
1. A renewable source of energy in the following is
1. solar energy 2. coal 3. electricity 4. fossil fuels
2. Pollutant responsible for allergic dermatitis and respiratory disorders is
1. Nickel 2. Chromium 3. Mercury 4. Lead
3. Main source of atmospheric N2O is
1. protein synthesis by plants 2. respiration of animals
3. photosynthesis of plants 4. decomposition of proteins by soil micorbes
4. Which of the following is a greeen house gas?
1. NO2 2. HCFC 3. SF6 4. MIC
5. Corrosion of metals is caused by
1. SO2 and NO2 2. photochemical smog and SO2
3. SO2 and ozone 4. london smog and NO2
6. Arrange the following in the ascending order of their concentration in atomsophere:
A. Chief air pollutant B.Major green house gas C.Chief gas pollutant in automobile exhaust D.Secondary pollutant that causes global warming
1. C D B A 2. C D A B 3. D C A B 4. C A D B
7. Pollution that does not leave any residue in the environment is
1. noise pollution 2. aerosols 3. radioactive pollution 4. smog
8. Gas responsible for green house effect is
1. carbon dioxide 2. carbon monoxide 3. sulphur dioxide 4. ozone
9. Mutations and blood cancer are caused by
1. pesticides 2. sewage 3. radioactive substances 4. Fluorine
10. Recently extinct animal in India is
1. Acinonyx 2. Leopard 3. Dodo 4. Gharial
11. Soil erosion results in
1. qualitative positive soil pollution 2. qualitative negative soil pollution
3. quantitative positive soil pollution 4. quantitative negative soil pollution
12. Pollutants that affect nervous system are
1. Aldrin and Nickel 2. Mercury and Carboryl
3. Aldicarb and Chromium 4. Malathion and Chromium
13. Gas responsible for Bhopal tragedy is
1. methyl iso cyanite 2. methyl iso cyanide 3. methyl iso cyanate 4. chlorofluorocarbons
14. Pesticides that are least toxic to man and close to nature are
1. organochlorines 2. carbomates 3. organophosphates 4. synthetic pyrethroids
15. Synthetic fertilizer pollution can be minimised by
1. Nalgonda technique 2. trickling filter method 3. mud ball technique
4. activated sludge processes
16. The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act was enacted in the year
1. 1968 2. 1974 3. 1977 4. 1981
17. Ranganthittoo Bird Sanctuary is present in
1. Uttar Pradesh 2. Orissa 3. Andhra Pradesh 4. Karnataka
18. Study the following about minor air pollutants:
Pollutant Source Effect
I. Tetraethyl lead Automobile exhaust Minamata disease
II. Methane Brick kilns Global warming
III. Benzopyrene Cigarette smoke Cancer
IV. Pollen grains Plants like Parthenium Cyanosis
Which of the above are correct?
1. I and II 2. II and III 3. III and IV 4. I and III
19. Disease prevalent in workers of spinning and ginning mills is
1. silicosis 2. asbestosis 3. myasis 4. byssinosis
20. Concentration of DDT is highest in
1. primary consumers 2. producers 3. secondary consumers 4. climax carnivores
21. Human activities are not at all permitted in
1. national park 2. buffer zone I of biosphere reserve
3. sanctuary 4. manipulation zone of biosphere reserve
22. Pollutant responsible for hypertension, low I.Q. in children is
1. Arsenic 2. Lead 3. Mercury 4. Tin
23. Releasing sewage into ponds leads to
1. incineration 2. gelation 3. detoxification 4. eutrophication
24. Action of the enzyme acetyl cholinesterase (AchE) at synaptic junctions is inhibited by
1. BHC 2. parathion 3. carboryl 4. aldrin
25. World Conservation Strategy was planned by
1. IUCN and ICZA 2. WWF and IBW 3. IUCN and WWF 4. IUCN and ICZ
26. Wildlife Protection Act was enacted in the year
1. 1962 2. 1972 3. 1982 4. 1986
27. Secondary pollutant among the following is
1. PAN 2. MIC 3. CFC 4. CO
28. Pesticides that inhibit the activity of the enzyme acetyl cholinesterase (AchE) are
1. carbomates 2. organophosphates 3. organochlorines 4. synthetic pyrethroids
29. National animal of Russia is
1. panda 2. bald eagle 3. white bear 4. kangaroo
30. Which of the following is a greeen house gas?
1. methane 2. bromine 3. chlorine 4. ozone
31. Wild populations, traditional life styles of tribals and varied domesticated plant and animal genetic resources are protected in
1. botanical gardens 2. bird sanctuaries 3. biosphere reserves 4. national parks
32. Gir National Park is located in
1. Orissa 2. Gujarat 3. Assam 4. Bihar
33. White spots appear on leaves of plants due to
1. CO2 2. N2O 3. CO 4. SO2
34. Species that are in the immediate danger of extinction are termed
1. vulnerable species 2. endangered species 3. rare species 4. sibling species
35. Water pollutant that causes dental and skeletal disorders in man is
1. Chlorine 2. Lead 3. Cadmium 4. Fluorine
36. Pollutant responsible for Minamata disease is
1. Lead 2. Mercury 3. Arsenic 4. Manganese
37. Wildlife Protection Act was enacted in the year
1. 1948 2. 1972 3. 1981 4. 1986
38. Pollutant useful for the synthesis of 5 formyl tetra hydrofolic acid in plants is
1. CO 2. SO2 3. PAN 4. CFC
39. Law enacted after Bhopal tragedy is
1. The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act
2. The Water (Prevention and Control ofPollution) Cess Act
3. Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act 4. Environmental (Protection) Act
40. Assertion (A) : Nitrogen oxides play an important role in the formation of photochemical smog.
Reason (R) : Nitrogen oxides released into the atmosphere are converted into HNO3
1. Both 'A' and 'R' are true and 'R' is the correct explanation of 'A'
2. Both 'A' and 'R' are true but 'R' is not correct explanation of 'A'
3. 'A' is true but 'R' is false 4. 'A' is false but 'R' is true
41. Pollutant that causes hypoxia in man is
1. sulphur dioxide 2. carbon monoxide 3. nitrous oxide 4. ozone
42. Pollutant that slows down ciliary movement in man is
1. CO 2. CO2 3. SO2 4. N2O
43. All the threatened species are listed in the Red Data Books published by
1. ICZN 2. IUCN 3. WWF 4. IBW
44. Pesticides that destroy female sex hormones of birds are
1. carbomates 2. organophosphates 3. organochlorines 4. synthetic pyrethroids
45. Largest sink for largest major air pollutant is
1. ocean 2. plants 3. river 4. soil
46. Solid or liquid particles in air having a diameter of less than 1 are termed
1. dust 2. smog 3. mist 4. aerosols
47. Pollutants responsible for formation of PAN are
1. carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide 2. sulphur dioxide and nitrogen oxides
3. chlorofluorocarbons 4. hydrocarbons and nitrogen oxides
48. Which of the following have same residence time?
1. NO and NO2 2. SO2 and NO2 3. NO2 and CO 4. NO and SO2
49. Metal pollutant that impairs maturation of RBC is
1. Mercury 2. Arsenic 3. Cadmium 4. Lead
50. Gas mainly responsible for the decay of Taj Mahal is
1. CO2 2. CO 3. SO2 4. O3
51. The main aim of Montreal protocol is
1. protection of ozone layer 2. reducing the release of green house gases
3. banning the use of pesticides 4. reducing radioactive pollution
52. Cancer is caused by
1. Arsenic and Chromium 2. Arsenic and Cadmium
3. Lead and Chromium 4. CO and Benzopyrene
53. In a food chain, pesticides undergo
1. biodegradation 2. biomagnification 3. biosynthesis 4. bioluminescence
54. Kanha National Park is present in
1. Maharashtra 2. Madhya Pradesh 3. Rajasthan 4. Uttaranchal
55. pH of acid rains is
1. 3.0 to 6.0 2. 6.0 to 7.0 3. 1.5 to 2.0 4. 7.2 to 7.6
56. Metal pollutant that causes muscular atrophy and cancer is
1. Lead 2. Cadmium 3. Nickel 4. Arsenic
57. Stone leprosy is caused by
1. carbon dioxide 2. sulphur dioxide 3. nitrogen dioxide 4. carbon monoxide
58. The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Cess Act was enacted in the year
1. 1986 2. 1974 3. 1977 4. 1981
59. In water bodies, sewage pollution causes
1. increase in DO and decrease in BOD 2. increase in DO and BOD
3. decrease in DO and increase in BOD 4. decrease in DO and BOD
60. The main aim of Montreal protocol is to regulate the production of
1. chlorofluorocarbons and halocarbons 2. hydrochlorofluorocarbons and methylbromide
3. chlorofluorocarbons and hydrochlorofluorocarbons 4. carbon dioxide and nitrous oxide
61. Secondary pollutant among the following is
1. chlorofluorocarbons 2. sulphuric acid 3. nitrous oxide 4. aerosols
62. Water pollutants that cause eutrophication are
1. sewage and industrial effluents 2. pesticide pollutants and fertilizer pollutants
3. sewage and fertilizer pollutants 4. fertilizer pollutants and heavy metals
63. Gases responsible for acid rains are
1. carbon dioxide and sulphur dioxide 2. carbon dioxide and nitrogen dioxides
3. sulphur dioxide and nitrogen oxides 4. chlorofluorocarbons and halocarbons
64. Animal that has recently become extinct in India is
1. Dugong 2. Cheetah 3. Dodo 4. Tiger
65. Pollutant that causes lung and skin cancer and affects nervous system is
1. Cadmium 2. Arsenic 3. Chromium 4. Nickel
66. Cotton fibres present in the air cause lung fibrosis called
1. silicosis 2. black lung disease 3. siderosis 4. byssinosis
67. Consider the following statements about diemthyl mercury:
I. It is a secondary pollutant
II. It is formed from mercury by the activity of aerobic microorganisms
III. It is insoluble in water
Which of the above are true?
1. Only I is true 2. Only I and II are true 3. Only II is true 4. All are wrong
68. Pesticides that damage brain of man are
1. carbomates 2. synthetic pyrethroids 3. organophosphates 4. organochlorines
69. Main cause of depletion of vulnerable species is
1. overgrazing 2. introudction of exotic species
3. overhunting 4. parasitic diseases
70. In a biosphere reserve, limited human activity for research and education is permitted in
1. manipulation zone 2. core zone 3. buffer zone 4. all the three zones
71. Catalytic converters in automobiles convert
1. CO to CO2 and NO2 to N2O 2. CO2 to CO and NO2 to Nitrogen
3. CO to CO2 and NO2 to Nitrogen 4. CO to CO2 and SO2 to H2SO4
72. Thermal pollution of water can be prevented by using
1. sewage treatment plants 2. catalytic converters
3. cooling towers 4. electrostatic precipitators
73. Recalcitrant and highly toxic pesticides are
1. synthetic pyrethroids 2. organochlorines 3. organophosphates 4. carbomates
74. Kanha National Park is located in
1. Madhya Pradesh 2. Kerala 3. Uttar Pradesh 4. Karnataka
75. Stone leprosy is due to the formation of
1. Calcium Carbonate 2. Calcium Phosphate 3. Calcium Sulphate 4. Calcium Citrate
76. Match the following and choose the correct combination:
Cancer Pollutant
A. Blood cancer 1. Strontium-90
B. Lung cancer 2. UV rays
C. Skin cancer 3. Iodine-131
D. Bone cancer 4. Nickel
5. Chromium
1. A-3; B-4; C-2; D-1 2. A-1; B-5; C-2; D-3 3. A-3; B-5; C-2; D-1 4. A-3; B-2; C-5; D-1
77. Main aim of Montreal Protocol is to phase out the production of
1. green house gases 2. perfluorocarbons and Sulphur Hexafluoride
3. Hydrochlorofluorocarbonss and Methyl Bromide 4. Chlorofluorocarbonss and Halocarbons
78. Marble and limestone are severely affected by
1. carbon dioxide 2. sulphur dioxide 3. nitrogen dioxide 4. carbon monoxide
79. Pollutant that is increasing in atmosphere day by day due to deforestation is
1. sulphur dioxide 2. nitric oxide 3. aerosols 4. carbon dioxide
80. "Oil eating" bacteria is
1. Cryptosporidium parvum 2. Pseudomonas putida 3. Giardia intestinalis 4. Escherichia coli
81. The most serious threat to wildlife is
1. habitat destruction 2. introduction of exotic species
3. hunting 4. overexploitation
82. Envirnomental friendly automobile fuel is
1. coal 2. diesel 3. kerosene 4. gasohol
83. Bio-indicators of air pollution are
1. lichens 2. birds 3. corals 4. plants
84. Ozone is a pollutant when it is present in
1. high concentration in stratosphere 2. low concentration in stratosphere
3. high concentration in troposphere 4. low concentration in troposphere
85. Gas that protects organisms from UV radiation is
1. carbon dioxide 2. ozone 3. carbon monoxide 4. sulphur dioxide
86. Depletion of ozone layer is due to
1. carbon dioxide 2. chlorofluorocarbons 3. sulphur dioxide 4. cotton dust
87. Residence time of sulphur dioxide is
1. 4 years 2. 4 days 3. 3 days 4. 2-4 years
88. Study the following about heavy metal pollutants of water:
Pollutant Source Effect
I. Cadmium Electroplating industry Kidney necrosis
II. Silver Photographic laboratory Arrhythmia
III. Mercury Paper industry Minamata disease
IV. Lead Battery industry Anaemia
Which of the above are true?
1. Only I, II and III 2. Only I, III and IV 3. Only II, III and IV 4. All are true
89. Intensity of faintest audible sound is
1. 0 db 2. 1db 3. 30 db 4. 120 db
90. Which of the following is a phytotoxic pollutant?
1. carbon monoxide 2. carbon dioxide 3. sulphur dioxide 4. nitrous oxide
91. Match the following and choose the correct combination:
Metal Pollutant Effect
A. Cadmium 1. Paralysis
B. Mercury 2. Coma
C. Nickel 3. Impaired maturation of WBC
D. Lead 4. Dermatitis
5. Sterility
1. A-5; B-1; C-4; D-3 2. A-5; B-1; C-2; D-4 3. A-5; B-1; C-4; D-2 4. A-4; B-1; C-5; D-2
92. Pollutant that affects kidneys (kidney necrosis), liver, pancreas and spleen is
1. Mercury 2. Lead 3. Cadmium 4. Arsenic
93. Metal pollutant released into atmosphere mainly from exhaust smoke of petrol vehicles is
1. Lead 2. Mercury 3. Arsenic 4. Zinc
94. Indravathi Tigre reserve is present in
1. Andhra Pradesh 2. Uttaranchal 3. Chattisgarh 4. Rajasthan
95. Indian Board of Wildlife acts in collaboration with
1. IUCN 2. WWF 3. ICZN 4. WHO
96. Which of the following is correct with respect to sewage polluted water?
1. DO>BOD>COD 2. DO
97. Threshold limit of pain is
98. Match the following and choose the correct combination:
Metal Pollutant Effect
A. Cadmium 1. Paralysis
B. Mercury 2.Deformation of hair and nails
C. Nickel 3.Impaired maturation of RBC
D. Selenium 4.Cyanosis
5.Sterility
99. National animal of Russia belongs to the family
100. Bird sanctuary present in the leading state in sericulture is
101. Cracks develop in rubber goods due to
102. The main aim of Kyoto protocol is to reduce
103. Eggs laid by birds have thin and brittle shells due to the effect of
104. Yellow spots appear on leaves due to high concentration of
105. Antidote for CO poisoning is
106. Which of the following is a rare species?
107. Pollutant that causes pulmonary oedema when it is present in high concentration is
108. Anticancer drugs are obtained from
109. Recently extinct bird of Mauritius is
110. Particulate pollution from the industries can be prevented by using
111. Protection is given only to fauna in
112. Paper loses mechanical strength and becomes brittle due to the effect of
113. Bharatpur Bird Sanctuary is present in
114. Percentage of carbon dioxide in dry air is about
115. Chernobyl accident in Russia caused
116. The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act was enacted in the year
117. Which of the following has least residence time?
118. Incinerators should be used for the disposal of
119. Bio-indicators of marine pollution are
120. Disease prevalent in workers of quarries and glass industries is
121. Pollutant that obstructs Hill reaction in plants is
122. Gas that has more affinity for haemoglobin is
123. Eutrophication leads to
124. Malathion is an example for
125. Kaziranga Wildlife Sanctuary is present in
126. Identify the Ozone Depleting Substance
127. If the following are arranged in ascending chronological order, which would be the third?
128. Toxic gas released due to burning of PVC items is
Tuesday, January 22, 2008
What happens when we sleep?
What are the various phases of sleep? What is REM sleep? Which gland helps maintain circadian rhythms? Watch this video.
Click to Watch the video
Click to Watch the video
Saturday, January 19, 2008
Key for test on muscular and nervous tissue:
1-4; 2-1; 3-4; 4-4; 5-1; 6-3; 7-1; 8-2; 9-1; 10-4; 11-2; 12-4; 13-1; 14-3; 15-4; 16-3 (4. Statement II is false); 17-3; 18-4; 19-3; 20-4; 21-2
Any key mistakes may be notified by clicking on "comments" link given just below this line.
Any key mistakes may be notified by clicking on "comments" link given just below this line.
Gout Disease
Gouty arthritis or gout results from damage to articular cartilage due to deposition of uric acid crystals in joints.
Friday, January 18, 2008
Test on Muscular and Nervous Tissue
01. Consider the following statements:
I. Bundles of smooth muscle fibres are enclosed in sheaths of loose connective tissue.
II. Each nerve fibre is enveloped by a delicate vascular loose connective tissue sheath called endoneurium.
III. Narrow spaces between adjacent fibres of cardiac muscle are filled with loose connective tissue.
Which of the above are true?
1. Only I and II 2. Only II and III 3. Only I and III 4. All are correct
01. Consider the following statements:
I. Bundles of smooth muscle fibres are enclosed in sheaths of loose connective tissue.
II. Each nerve fibre is enveloped by a delicate vascular loose connective tissue sheath called endoneurium.
III. Narrow spaces between adjacent fibres of cardiac muscle are filled with loose connective tissue.
Which of the above are true?
1. Only I and II 2. Only II and III 3. Only I and III 4. All are correct
02. Arrange the following from inner to outer in a striated muscle:
A. Perimysium B. Endomysium C. Epimysium D. Muscle fibre E Fasciculus F. Muscle.
1. DBEAFC 2. DEBAFC 3. DBEFAC 4. DBEFCA
03. The impulse transmission is rapid in cardiac muscle due to
1. reticular arrangement of fibres and intervertebral discs
2. intercalated discs and cylindrical myofibres
3. indistinct sarcolemma and less marked striations
4. intercalated discs and reticular arrangement
04. Consider the following statements about cardiac muscle:
I . Contractions and relaxations are initiated and maintained by pacemaker in cardiac muscles.
II. Cardiac muscles are functionally syncytial.
III. Cardiac muscle fibres are multicellular.
IV. Blood supply is abundant in cardiac muscle.
Which of the above are true?
1. Only I and III 2. Only I 3. Only I and IV 4. All are correct
05. Uninucleate, unicellular muscle fibres occur in
1. dermis of skin 2. the base of great blood vessels
3. pharynx 4. the beginning of oesophagus
06. Blood - brain barrier is formed by
1. Microglial cells 2. Ependymal cells 3. Astrocyte 4. Oligodendrocytes
07. Funiculi in spinal cord contain
1. Cholinergic neurons and fibrous astrocytes
2. Non-medullated neurons and fibrous astrocytes
3. Medullated neurons and protoplasmic astrocytes
4. Adrenergic neurons and protoplasmic astrocytes
08. Arrange the following in order at node of Ranvier
1. Axolemma 2. Neurilemma 3. Endoneurium 4. Myelin sheath
1. 1 2 3 4 2. 1 2 3 3. 1 3 4 2 4. 1 2 4 3
09. Consider the following statements:
I. Replacing bone is formed by the endochondral ossification of pre-existing cartilages.
II. Membranous bones invest underlying cartilage bones.
III. Seamoid bone is formed by the ossification of tendon.
IV. Os penis occurs in the penis of horse.
Which of the above are true?
1. Only I and III 2. Only I, II and III 3. Only I 4. All are correct
10. Major portion of inorganic substances in bone matrix occur in the form of
1. Chondroitin-4-sulphate 2. Collagen 3. Calcium carbonate 4. Calcium phosphate
11. One of the following, muscle is in a prolonged partial contracted state
1. Intrinsic muscle of tongue 2. Circular muscle of stomach
3. Flexor muscle of leg 4. Cardiac muscles of pulmonary aorta
12. Consider the following statements about cardiac muscle:
I. Intercalated discs are dark and irregular
II. Intercalated discs occur at regular intervals.
III. Dark and light bands are regular.
Which of the above are true?
1. Only I and II 2. II and III 3. Only I and III 4. All are correct
13. Which among the following is applicable to a nerve?
I. A nerve contains axons but lacks dendrites and cytons.
II. Sympathetic nerve contains nonmedullated axons.
III. A nerve fasciculus is a bundle of nerve fibres.
IV. A nerve contains only one fasciculus.
1. All except IV 2. All except I and IV 3. All except II and IV 4. All are correct
14. Assertion (A) : Cardiac muscles are functionally syncytial muscles
Reason (R) : Each muscle fibre in its development is formed by the fusion of many cells
1. Both 'A' and 'R' are true and 'R' is the correct explanation of 'A'
2. Both 'A' and 'R' are true but 'R' is not correct explanation of 'A'
3. 'A' is true but 'R' is false 4. 'A' is false but 'R' is true
15. Consider the following statements:
I. Marrow cavity is lined by a vascular connective tissue called endosteum.
II. Outer surface of bone has a tough vascular connective tissue sheath called periosteum.
III. Sheaths around individual muscle fibres fasciculus are collectively called endomysium.
IV. Outer surface of muscle is covered by a sheath of fibrous connective tissue called epimysium.
Which of the above are true?
1. All except I 2. All except III 3. All except II 4. All are correct
16. Consider the following statements:
I. Epimysium and perimysium contain blood vessels and nerves of appropriate diameters.
II. Endomysium contains blood capillaries and nerves.
III. Sheath of loose connective tissue around a bundle smooth muscle fibres contains blood vessels and nerve fibres.
IV. Perichondrium contains blood vessels and nerve fibres.
V. Reticular fibres provide support to blood capillaries and nerves.
How many of the above statements are true?
1. 2 2. 3 3.4 4. 5
17. Nerves of invertebrates conduct impulses slowly because, their nerve cells donot possess
1. Telodendrites 2. Nissl's granules 3. Myelin sheath 4. Ganglia
18. Muscle fibres with less marked striations possess
1. less blood supply 2. intervertebral discs
3. limited regeneration 4. indistinct sarcolemma
19. Iris muscles are
1. ectodermal striated muscles 2. mesodermal striated muscles
3. ectodermal smooth muscles 4. mesodermal smooth muscles
20. Ions that occur in sarcoplasm and play an important role in muscle contraction are
1. sodium and potassium 2. chloride and bicarbonate
3. phosphate and sulphur 4. calcium and magnesium
21. RBCs of camels and llamas are
1. oval and nucleated 2. oval and enucleate
3. circular and nucleated 4. circular and enucleate
Answers
I. Bundles of smooth muscle fibres are enclosed in sheaths of loose connective tissue.
II. Each nerve fibre is enveloped by a delicate vascular loose connective tissue sheath called endoneurium.
III. Narrow spaces between adjacent fibres of cardiac muscle are filled with loose connective tissue.
Which of the above are true?
1. Only I and II 2. Only II and III 3. Only I and III 4. All are correct
01. Consider the following statements:
I. Bundles of smooth muscle fibres are enclosed in sheaths of loose connective tissue.
II. Each nerve fibre is enveloped by a delicate vascular loose connective tissue sheath called endoneurium.
III. Narrow spaces between adjacent fibres of cardiac muscle are filled with loose connective tissue.
Which of the above are true?
1. Only I and II 2. Only II and III 3. Only I and III 4. All are correct
02. Arrange the following from inner to outer in a striated muscle:
A. Perimysium B. Endomysium C. Epimysium D. Muscle fibre E Fasciculus F. Muscle.
1. DBEAFC 2. DEBAFC 3. DBEFAC 4. DBEFCA
03. The impulse transmission is rapid in cardiac muscle due to
1. reticular arrangement of fibres and intervertebral discs
2. intercalated discs and cylindrical myofibres
3. indistinct sarcolemma and less marked striations
4. intercalated discs and reticular arrangement
04. Consider the following statements about cardiac muscle:
I . Contractions and relaxations are initiated and maintained by pacemaker in cardiac muscles.
II. Cardiac muscles are functionally syncytial.
III. Cardiac muscle fibres are multicellular.
IV. Blood supply is abundant in cardiac muscle.
Which of the above are true?
1. Only I and III 2. Only I 3. Only I and IV 4. All are correct
05. Uninucleate, unicellular muscle fibres occur in
1. dermis of skin 2. the base of great blood vessels
3. pharynx 4. the beginning of oesophagus
06. Blood - brain barrier is formed by
1. Microglial cells 2. Ependymal cells 3. Astrocyte 4. Oligodendrocytes
07. Funiculi in spinal cord contain
1. Cholinergic neurons and fibrous astrocytes
2. Non-medullated neurons and fibrous astrocytes
3. Medullated neurons and protoplasmic astrocytes
4. Adrenergic neurons and protoplasmic astrocytes
08. Arrange the following in order at node of Ranvier
1. Axolemma 2. Neurilemma 3. Endoneurium 4. Myelin sheath
1. 1 2 3 4 2. 1 2 3 3. 1 3 4 2 4. 1 2 4 3
09. Consider the following statements:
I. Replacing bone is formed by the endochondral ossification of pre-existing cartilages.
II. Membranous bones invest underlying cartilage bones.
III. Seamoid bone is formed by the ossification of tendon.
IV. Os penis occurs in the penis of horse.
Which of the above are true?
1. Only I and III 2. Only I, II and III 3. Only I 4. All are correct
10. Major portion of inorganic substances in bone matrix occur in the form of
1. Chondroitin-4-sulphate 2. Collagen 3. Calcium carbonate 4. Calcium phosphate
11. One of the following, muscle is in a prolonged partial contracted state
1. Intrinsic muscle of tongue 2. Circular muscle of stomach
3. Flexor muscle of leg 4. Cardiac muscles of pulmonary aorta
12. Consider the following statements about cardiac muscle:
I. Intercalated discs are dark and irregular
II. Intercalated discs occur at regular intervals.
III. Dark and light bands are regular.
Which of the above are true?
1. Only I and II 2. II and III 3. Only I and III 4. All are correct
13. Which among the following is applicable to a nerve?
I. A nerve contains axons but lacks dendrites and cytons.
II. Sympathetic nerve contains nonmedullated axons.
III. A nerve fasciculus is a bundle of nerve fibres.
IV. A nerve contains only one fasciculus.
1. All except IV 2. All except I and IV 3. All except II and IV 4. All are correct
14. Assertion (A) : Cardiac muscles are functionally syncytial muscles
Reason (R) : Each muscle fibre in its development is formed by the fusion of many cells
1. Both 'A' and 'R' are true and 'R' is the correct explanation of 'A'
2. Both 'A' and 'R' are true but 'R' is not correct explanation of 'A'
3. 'A' is true but 'R' is false 4. 'A' is false but 'R' is true
15. Consider the following statements:
I. Marrow cavity is lined by a vascular connective tissue called endosteum.
II. Outer surface of bone has a tough vascular connective tissue sheath called periosteum.
III. Sheaths around individual muscle fibres fasciculus are collectively called endomysium.
IV. Outer surface of muscle is covered by a sheath of fibrous connective tissue called epimysium.
Which of the above are true?
1. All except I 2. All except III 3. All except II 4. All are correct
16. Consider the following statements:
I. Epimysium and perimysium contain blood vessels and nerves of appropriate diameters.
II. Endomysium contains blood capillaries and nerves.
III. Sheath of loose connective tissue around a bundle smooth muscle fibres contains blood vessels and nerve fibres.
IV. Perichondrium contains blood vessels and nerve fibres.
V. Reticular fibres provide support to blood capillaries and nerves.
How many of the above statements are true?
1. 2 2. 3 3.4 4. 5
17. Nerves of invertebrates conduct impulses slowly because, their nerve cells donot possess
1. Telodendrites 2. Nissl's granules 3. Myelin sheath 4. Ganglia
18. Muscle fibres with less marked striations possess
1. less blood supply 2. intervertebral discs
3. limited regeneration 4. indistinct sarcolemma
19. Iris muscles are
1. ectodermal striated muscles 2. mesodermal striated muscles
3. ectodermal smooth muscles 4. mesodermal smooth muscles
20. Ions that occur in sarcoplasm and play an important role in muscle contraction are
1. sodium and potassium 2. chloride and bicarbonate
3. phosphate and sulphur 4. calcium and magnesium
21. RBCs of camels and llamas are
1. oval and nucleated 2. oval and enucleate
3. circular and nucleated 4. circular and enucleate
Answers
Monday, January 14, 2008
Local Hormones
[Click on the image to enlarge]
Most hormones are circulating hormones. They pass from the secretory cells into interstitial fluid and then into the blood. Local hormones, act locally on neighboring cells (paracrines) or on the same cell that secreted them (autocrines) without entering the bloodstream For example, somatostatin secreted by delta cells of pancreatic islets diffuses through tissue fluid and acts on the neighbouring alpha and beta cells.
Articular Cartilage
Articular cartilage, which covers the surfaces of the bones of movable joints, is devoid of perichondrium and is sustained by the diffusion of oxygen and nutrients from the synovial fluid.
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